PubMed Health⌕ Search

Biomedical subjects

A Pitt

Publications and source records attributed to A Pitt.

At least 19 recordsLinked to original sources

Cystic fibrosis pathogens activate Ca2+-dependent mitogen-activated protein kinase signaling pathways in airway epithelial cells.

Much of the pulmonary disease in cystic fibrosis is associated with polymorphonuclear leukocyte-dominated airway inflammation caused by bacterial infection. Respiratory epithelial cells express the polymorphonuclear chemokine interleukin-8 (IL-8) in response to ligation of asialylated glycolipid receptors, which are increased on damaged or regenerating cells and those with cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator mutations. Because both Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Staphylococcus aureus, the most common pathogens in cystic fibrosis, bind asialylated glycolipid receptors such as asialoGM1, we postulated that diverse bacteria can activate a common epithelial signaling pathway to elicit IL-8 expression. P. aeruginosa PAO1 but not pil mutants and S. aureus RN6390 but not the agr mutant RN6911 stimulated increases in [Ca(2+)](i) in 1HAEo- airway epithelial cells. This response stimulated p38 and ERK1/2 mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) signaling cascades resulting in NF-kappaB activation and IL-8 expression. Ligation of the asialoGM1 receptor or thapsigargin-elicited Ca(2+) release activated this pathway, whereas P. aeruginosa lipopolysaccharide did not. The rapid kinetics of epithelial activation precluded bacterial invasion of the epithelium. Recognition of asialylated glycolipid receptors on airway epithelial cells provides a common pathway for Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms to initiate an epithelial inflammatory response.

Adhesins, Bacterial↗

Effect of voxel position on single-voxel MR spectroscopy findings.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Single-voxel MR spectroscopy is a widely used tool for evaluating brain tumors. Although extensive data are available on the MR spectral appearance of tumors, less is known about the effect of voxel position on the accuracy of single-voxel MR spectroscopy findings. The purpose of this study was to test the hypothesis that the accuracy of single-voxel MR spectroscopy in the categorization of lesions as either tumor or not tumor is dependent on voxel position. METHODS: Fifty single-voxel MR spectra acquired with a fully automated stimulated-echo spectroscopy sequence were reviewed retrospectively in 43 patients with new or previously treated intra-axial brain tumors. Spectra were analyzed for the presence of choline, creatine, N-acetylaspartate (NAA), and lipid/lactate. Choline/creatine and NAA/creatine peak area ratios were assessed qualitatively. Lesions were grouped into one of three categories on the basis of spectral pattern: tumor, not tumor, or indeterminate. Results of MR spectroscopy were compared with the final histopathologic diagnosis. RESULTS: Histologic confirmation was obtained in 19 patients; MR spectra were interpretable in 17 of those. MR spectra correctly categorized nine of 17 lesions (six tumor, three nontumor). All eight misdiagnosed lesions were tumors. When the MR spectroscopy voxel included the enhancing edge of the lesion, the spectra correctly categorized seven of eight lesions (four of five tumors and all three cases of radiation necrosis). When the MR spectroscopy voxel was positioned centrally within the lesion, the spectra correctly reflected histologic outcome in two of nine lesions (all tumors). CONCLUSION: The reliability of single-voxel MR spectroscopy findings is dependent on voxel position. Spectra obtained from voxels at the enhancing edge of a tumor more accurately reflect lesion histopathology than do spectra obtained from the lesion center, even if the centrally placed voxels contain solidly enhancing tissue.

Aspartic Acid↗

The Melbourne Acuity Screening Test (MAST).

The Melbourne Acuity Screening Test (MAST) is a vision screening technique which combines the features of a linear presentation, incorporating a crowding effect with a pass/fail test protocol. It is a simple, quick screening test which can be used for both literate and illiterate people. This paper reports on the preliminary results of a comparison of the pass/fail method with that of the measurement of threshold linear acuity. The evaluation consisted of four parts: (1) test-retest and reliability of the MAST and Sheridan Gardiner (SG) linear test; (2) concurrent validity of the MAST compared with the SG linear test; (3) a limited negative predictive study, and (4) a comparison of the time taken to perform the MAST versus the measurement of threshold acuity. The test-retest reliability for both tests was high. The agreement, determined by Cohenthorn s kappa, ranged between 0.71 and 0.79. The agreement between the MAST and the SG linear test was also high, ranging between 0.88 and 0.89. The negative predictive value was 100%. The positive predictive value was 85.7%. The MAST was also significantly quicker to perform, taking approximately half the time of the SG linear test.

Child↗

Arthromitus (Bacillus cereus) symbionts in the cockroach Blaberus giganteus: dietary influences on bacterial development and population density.

The filamentous spore-forming bacterium Arthromitus, discovered in termites, millipedes, sow bugs and other soil-dwelling arthropods by Leidy (1850), is the intestinal stage of Bacillus cereus. We extend the range of Arthromitus habitats to include the hindgut of Blaberus giganteus, the large tropical American cockroach. The occurrence and morphology of the intestinal form of the bacillus were compared in individual cockroaches (n=24) placed on four different diet regimes: diurnally maintained insects fed (1) dog food, (2) soy protein only, (3)purified cellulose only, and (4) a dog food-fed group maintained in continuous darkness. Food quality exerted strong influence on population densities and developmental stages of the filamentous bacterium and on fecal pellet composition. The most dramatic rise in Arthromitus populations, defined as the spore-forming filament intestinal stage, occurred in adult cockroaches kept in the dark on a dog food diet. Limited intake of cellulose or protein alone reduced both the frequency of Arthromitus filaments and the rate of weight gain of the insects. Spores isolated from termites, sow bugs, cockroaches and moths, grown on various hard surfaces display a branching mobility and resistance to antibiotics characteristic to group I Bacilli whose members include B. cereus, B. circulans, B. alvei and B. macerans. DNA isolated from pure cultures of these bacilli taken from the guts of Blaberus giganteus (cockroach), Junonia coenia (moth), Porcellio scaber (sow bug) and Cryptotermes brevis (termite) and subjected to Southern hybridization with a 23S-5S B. subtilis ribosomal sequence probe verified that they are indistinguishable from laboratory strains of Bacillus cereus.

Animal Feed↗

Molecular characterization of the human airway smooth muscle Na+/Ca2+ exchanger.

The Na+/Ca2+ exchanger is an important plasma-membrane Ca2+ transport protein. Functional studies of the effects of removal of external Na+ on airway smooth muscle tone, and studies of Na+-dependent Ca2+ fluxes in membrane vesicles have provided indirect evidence of an important role for Na+/Ca2+ exchange in regulating airway smooth muscle tone. Recent molecular studies have identified seven isoforms of the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger (NCX1) gene in other tissues, but direct molecular characterization of the airway smooth muscle Na+/Ca2+ exchanger has not previously been performed. We have therefore used a reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain (RT-PCR) reaction method and DNA sequencing to study the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger isoform present in human airway smooth muscle. The dominant isoform was found to be virtually identical to the NACA3 isoform originally described in rabbit kidney cortex. The DNA sequence of the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger exon B that we obtained is previously unpublished for any human tissue. This study provides the first definitive molecular evidence of the existence of an Na+/Ca2+ exchanger in airway smooth muscle. The molecular characterization of the human airway smooth muscle Na+/Ca2+ exchanger will facilitate future electrophysiologic studies of its function.

Amino Acid Sequence↗

Discontinuation of antiepileptic drug treatment after two seizure-free years in children with cerebral palsy.

OBJECTIVE: The risk of seizure relapse after antiepileptic drug (AED) discontinuation in children has been reported to vary between 6% and 40%. It has been suggested that neurologic deficit and mental retardation are poor prognostic factors for seizure relapse after AED discontinuation. Because epileptic children with cerebral palsy (CP) have neurologic deficits, and many have mental retardation, it is important to know their risk for seizure relapse. METHODS: AED treatment was discontinued in 65 children with CP and histories of epilepsy after 2 seizure-free years. All of the patients were followed until they had seizure relapses or for at least 2 years without seizures after AEDs were stopped. Multiple factors were analyzed for possible association with seizure relapse. RESULTS: Twenty-seven patients (41.5%) had seizure relapses. Patients with spastic hemiparesis had the highest relapse rate (61.5%), and those with spastic diplegia had the lowest rate (14.3%). No other factor correlated significantly with the risk of seizure relapse. CONCLUSIONS: Discontinuation of AEDs in children with CP can, and should, be practiced when possible after patients have been seizure-free for at least 2 years. AED discontinuation in patients with spastic hemiparesis is significantly more likely to lead to seizure relapse than in patients with other CP types, but no other factor is yet known to increase the chance of relapse.

Adolescent↗

Alfred Hospital Coronary Care Unit: an acute myocardial infarction quality assurance study.

A six-month prospective study was performed to assess the efficacy of delivering thrombolytic therapy to patients with acute myocardial infarction and admitted to the coronary care unit. Patient characteristics, time from chest pain onset to presentation to emergency department, from presentation to thrombolytic therapy, transfer from emergency department to coronary care unit major interventions and outcome were assessed. One hundred and twenty patients were admitted with acute myocardial infarction, mean age 66 years (26-91), 69% were males. Of these, 50% received thrombolytic therapy. The mean time from chest pain onset to emergency department was 192 +/- 164 minutes, transfer from emergency department to coronary care unit was 195 +/- 150 minutes. The mean time from presentation to emergency department to receiving thrombolytics was 63 +/- 12 minutes. Streptokinase was the choice of thrombolytic in 97%. Thrombolytic therapy was administered in emergency department in 80% of cases. Thirty-eight (63%) patients received thrombolytic therapy within 60 minutes of presentation. Compared to the non-thrombolytic group, the thrombolytic group were younger, 63 vs 69 years, P < 0.01, presented earlier to hospital (192 vs 394 minutes, P < 0.0005), were transferred to coronary care unit sooner (195 vs 472 minutes, P < 0.001), and had more coronary angiograms (29 vs 23, P < 0.02) and PTCA performed 10 vs 3, P < 0.04. There were no significant differences in length of coronary care unit stay, length of hospital stay, patients receiving CABG or death.

Adult↗

Influence of diurnal variation on the intraocular pressure measurement of treated primary open-angle glaucoma during office hours.

PURPOSE: Intraocular pressure has been shown in past studies to vary diurnally. The purpose of this study was to establish whether patients treated with timolol maleate for primary open-angle glaucoma should be reviewed at a specific time of day, within normal clinical hours (9 a.m. to 5 p.m.). It is normal practice to schedule review appointments into either morning or afternoon clinic sessions. This may result in abnormally high intraocular pressure values being missed. METHODS: The intraocular pressure of 28 people with primary open-angle glaucoma was measured by means of a Goldmann applanator on an hourly basis between the hours of 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. All subjects continued their antiglaucoma therapy of timolol maleate throughout the measurement period. RESULTS: The intraocular pressure increased significantly (p = 0.0008) throughout the measurement period, with maximal intraocular pressure values occurring at 5 p.m. in the afternoon. CONCLUSION: Although monitoring intraocular pressure values should not be the only consideration in glaucoma management, undetected rises in pressure may precede the development of optic disc cupping or visual field loss. The variability of intraocular pressure values has important implications in the scheduling of glaucoma intraocular pressure review measurements for the purposes of continuing treatment.

Adrenergic beta-Antagonists↗

Electrocardiographic response during dobutamine stress echocardiography.

Studies assessing dobutamine stress (DS) echocardiography (echo) have included 12-lead electrocardiograms (ECG) in their protocol. We retrospectively reviewed the records of 76 patients who were referred for DS echo and coronary angiography to assess the incremental diagnostic value of DS ECG beyond the results of the echocardiographic images of the DS echo. The prevalence of coronary artery disease was 86%. Baseline ST-segment abnormalities prohibited assessment of ischemic ST-segment changes in 35 (46%) patients. For the detection of a > or = 50% stenosis on coronary angiography, DS echo alone had a sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV), negative predictive value (NPV) and accuracy of 92%, 73%, 95%, 62%, and 89%, respectively. The DS ECG alone had a sensitivity, specificity, PPV, NPV, and accuracy of 38%, 45%, 81%, 11%, and 39%, respectively. Combined results of the DS echo and the DS ECG slightly increased sensitivity, but with a marked reduction in specificity, PPV, NPV, and accuracy. We conclude that (1) DS ECG is interpretable for ischemic ST-segment changes in about 50% of patients referred for DS echo; (2) DS ECG is a poor predictor of coronary artery disease; and (3) DS ECG response only slightly increases the sensitivity of the echo findings of a DS echo study. Because the incremental diagnostic value of the DS ECG response is poor, elimination of the 12-lead DS ECG is unlikely to diminish the diagnostic value of the DS echo and may result in a substantial cost savings.

Coronary Angiography↗

Transport of phagosomal components to an endosomal compartment.

The participation of phagosomes in interorganellar protein and membrane exchange is important to the maturation of phagosomes into phagolysosomes. To investigate this process, we have developed an assay to measure protein transport from phagosomes to other vesicle populations. J774-E clone macrophages phagocytosed 125I-anti-dinitrophenol IgG-coated Staphylococcus aureus for 3 min followed by chase for intervals of 0-30 min. Following cell fractionation, the intracellular distribution of radioiodinated protein was assayed. We observed a time-dependent increase radioiodinated protein in a non-phagosome vesicle fraction which displayed endosome characteristics. Concomitantly, radioiodinated protein within phagosomes decreased over the chase period. As assessed via Percoll density gradient fractionation, the phagocytosed radioiodinated protein migrated to both heavy (lysosome density) and light (endosome density) vesicle populations. Characterization of the fusogenic properties of the transport vesicles demonstrated that they are capable of in vitro fusion with early endosomes. Furthermore, this fusion event shares many of the biochemical requirements identified for phagosome-endosome and endosome-endosome fusion. Morphological analysis of phagosome maturation provides additional evidence for phagosome to endosome transport. These results suggest phagocytosed material is transferred from phagosomes to endosomes and then recycled out of the cell.

Biological Transport↗

Alterations in the protein composition of maturing phagosomes.

We investigated the protein composition of J774-E clone macrophage phagosomes isolated at different stages of phagolysosome biogenesis. Phagosomes formed by internalizing antibody-coated Staphylococcus aureus for 3 min followed by chase for 0, 4, 9, or 15 min were isolated by density gradient centrifugation. Enrichment and purity of the phagosome preparations were quantitated by radiolabeled ligand recovery, enzyme markers, and electron microscopy. One-dimensional SDS-PAGE analyses of the isolated phagosomes revealed virtually identical protein compositions. However, Western blot analyses with antibodies directed against selected proteins of known itineraries along the endocytic pathway demonstrated distinct differences in phagosome protein compositions. Accumulating within the maturing phagosome were the 31-kD subunit of the vacuolar proton pump, cathepsin D,beta-glucuronidase, the cation dependent mannose 6-phosphate receptor, and LAMP-1. Decreasing within the maturing phagosome were the FcII receptor, the mannose receptor, and alpha-adaptin. These results indicate that although the macrophage phagosome's total protein composition changes little during phagolysosome formation, the maturing phagosome both receives and eliminates, possibly by protein recycling, specific membrane and sequestered proteins.

Cell Line↗

Identification of an endosome-specific antigen.

We have used successive density gradient centrifugation with vesicles prepared from a human hepatoma Hep G2 post nuclear supernatant to obtain a highly enriched preparation of early endosomes. A monoclonal antibody (8E4) raised against this early endosome preparation recognizes a single polypeptide highly enriched in light vesicle membranes. The antigen has a molecular weight of 195 kDa by SDS-PAGE in the presence or absence of a reducing agent. Western blot analysis shows that the 8E4 antigen is detectable only in light vesicle membranes and not among heavy membranes, whole cytosol, or nuclear pellet proteins. The 8E4 antigen appears to be an integral membrane protein as it is precipitated by Triton X-114. The distribution of the 8E4 antigen in a Nycodenz density gradient fractionation of light vesicle membranes is identical to the distribution of 125I-ASOR-labeled early endosomes but distinct from the distribution of the plasma membrane enzyme, alkaline phosphodiesterase. In addition, incubation of cells with a horseradish peroxidase-transferrin conjugate followed by 3,3'-diaminobenzidine cytochemistry specifically quenches 8E4 antigen detection by protein dot blot analysis. These data strongly suggest that the 8E4 antigen is an integral membrane protein primarily located in endocytic vesicles.

Animals↗

Reconstitution of human hepatoma endosome-endosome fusion in vitro: potential roles for an endoprotease and a phosphoprotein phosphatase.

We developed a sensitive fluorometric assay to study in vitro fusion between early endosomes isolated from the human hepatoma, Hep G2. Biochemical characterization of this assay showed that fusion between endosomal vesicles was dependent on physiologic temperature, cytosol, and ATP. Fusion was inhibited by pretreatment of vesicles and cytosol with either 1 mM N-ethylmaleimide or 20 microM GTP gamma S. Neither 3 mM ethylene glycol-bis-(beta-aminoethyl ether)-N,N,N',N'-tetraacetic acid nor 1 mM CaCl2 significantly affected fusion. In addition, ATP gamma S neither inhibited fusion at 50 microM nor supported fusion at 5 mM. To further our understanding of the factors regulating fusion, inhibitors of endoprotease activity and phosphotyrosine phosphatase activity were assayed for their effect on fusion. The dipeptide inhibitor of endoprotease activity, Cbz-gly-phe-amide, inhibited fusion 70% at 3 mM whereas a dipeptide analogue, Cbz-gly-gly-amide, was without effect. Furthermore, orthovanadate, an inhibitor of phosphotyrosine phosphatase activity, stimulated fusion twofold at 0.5 mM. These results suggest that both tyrosine dephosphorylation and endoprotease activity contribute to the regulation of endosome fusion.

Animals↗