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Biomedical subjects

C Klersy

Publications and source records attributed to C Klersy.

At least 19 recordsLinked to original sources

Changes in autonomic modulation to the heart and intracellular catecholamines. A longitudinal study in differentiated thyroid carcinoma during short-term hypothyroidism and thyroid hormone replacement.

BACKGROUND: The effects of thyroid deprivation on the autonomic modulation to the heart remain controversial. METHODS: In this study in patients followed for thyroid carcinoma, we investigated (1) heart rate variability parameters and the baroreflex gain and (2) intracellular catecholamine levels in circulating lymphocytes during short-term hypothyroidism (phase 1) and after reinstitution of TSH-suppressive thyroid hormone replacement (phase 2). RESULTS: The RR interval value (p < 0.01) and systolic blood pressure (p < 0.05) were higher in phase 1 than in phase 2. The low-frequency/high-frequency (LF/HF) ratio was significantly lower in the hypothyroid state (p < 0.05), with a higher HF component (p < 0.05). After adjusting for mean RR interval in the regression model, the difference between the power of RR interval oscillations calculated in the two states was greater for the LF band (p = 0.005) and it was borderline significant for the HF band (p = 0.052). The baroreflex gain alpha(LF) index was similar in the two phases. The stimulus-induced cellular production of norepinephrine and epinephrine in peripheral blood mononuclear cells was significantly higher in phase 2. CONCLUSION: The neurally-mediated influences on the sinus node and the study of intracellular catecholamine production suggest a reduced sympathoexcitation in hypothyroidism compared with the treatment phase. The early increase in blood pressure observed after thyroid hormone withdrawal is not due to impaired sensitivity of the baroreflex arc.

Autonomic Nervous System↗

Determinants of quality of life after lung transplant: an Italian collaborative study.

BACKGROUND: With the improvement in survival rates after lung transplantation, concern has arisen about evaluating quality of life (QoL). This multicenter cross-sectional study aimed at describing QoL and identifying factors associated with it. METHODS: We assessed QoL in 129 lung transplant recipients from 5 centres in Italy, during scheduled follow-up visits, using the SF-36, GHQ and St George's respiratory questionnaires (SGRQ). RESULTS: The SF-36 elicited impaired QoL in the physical, but not in the mental domains (PCS = 44; MCS = 53). The GHQ identified 29 patients (23%) with psychological discomfort and the SGRQ scores were significantly better than those of patients with chronic respiratory disease. On multivariate analysis, exertional dyspnea was an independent predictor of the PCS (adjusted delta -6.3 (p < 0.001), while osteoporosis (delta = -3.1), BOS (delta = -4.3), acute rejection (delta = -3.9) and heart and lung transplant (delta = +6.4) were only marginally associated. Dyspnea was also related to a GHQ score > 5. CONCLUSIONS: The study identified exertional dyspnea as the main determinant of QoL as measured both by SF36 (PCS) and GHQ. Other objective measures contributed only to the PCS. Thus, the SF-36 (PCS) and GHQ were useful in identifying patients who needed treatment not only for complications but also psychological support and continued physical rehabilitation.

Cross-Sectional Studies↗

Screening spirometry to detect respiratory allergy.

BACKGROUND: Recently, it has been evidenced that the forced expiratory flow at the 25 and 75% of the pulmonary volume (FEF25-75) might be considered as a possible marker of early bronchial impairment in patients with allergic rhinitis alone. OBJECTIVES: The aim of this study was to determine whether a spirometric impairment may predict allergy during screening visit. METHODS: The study included 283 Navy soldiers (255 males, mean age 27.1 + 8.2) who had to undergo spirometry for attending specific courses. Fifty-four showed slight spirometric anomalies. Thus, they referred to Navy Hospital of La Spezia for standardized tests: skin prick test, spirometry, and methacholine bronchial challenge. RESULTS: Forty seven (87%) subjects were sensitized (47% monosensitized and 53% polysensitized). Allergic rhinitis was diagnosed in 25 subjects with median nasal TSS 5. FVC and FEV1 values were normal, whereas FEF25-75 values were reduced (61.8 + 14.8 % of predicted), bronchodilation test was significant for FEF25-75 (82.9 + 16.8% of predicted; p<0.001) only. Bronchial hyperreactivity (BHR) was detected in 28 subjects, all but 1 were sensitized. CONCLUSIONS: This study provides evidence, relevant to clinical care, that mild spirometric impairment may generate the suspect of allergic disorders, thus spirometry could be more frequently performed in general population screening.

Adult↗

Ovarian cancer and venous thromboembolic risk.

OBJECTIVE: To determine the incidence and the prognostic factors of objectively diagnosed deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE) in patients with epithelial ovarian malignancy. METHODS: We reviewed the records of all patients with epithelial ovarian cancer who were diagnosed, treated, and followed-up at our institution between 1990 and 2001. Data were collected regarding age, body mass index, previous DVT and PE, menopause status, FIGO stage, grade, histology, type of surgery, residual disease, first line chemotherapy, and relapse status. RESULTS: Of the 253 cases, the overall incidence of symptomatic venous thromboembolic events (VTE) was 16.6% (42 patients): 1.6% (4) with PE and 15% (38) with DVT. 8 events (3.2%) were detected before tumor diagnosis, 6 (2.4%) in the postoperative period, 16 (6.4%) during first line chemotherapy and 12 (4.8%) throughout the follow-up period. Risk factors associated with occurrence of VTE were: at diagnosis, history of deep vein thrombosis (P = 0.001); during chemotherapy, older age (P = 0.017), larger body mass index (P = 0.019), FIGO stage 2c-4 (P = 0.004), no surgery (P = 0.003), and presence of residual tumor (P = 0.026). None of the considered risk factors were found to be predictors of VTE postoperatively. The multivariate regression analysis found that residual tumor, age, and body mass index were independent prognostic factors. CONCLUSION: The incidence of VTE throughout the entire history of ovarian malignancy is high. Prognostic factors could be used to establish prophylaxis protocols based on risk stratification.

Adult↗

Incidence and prognostic significance of karyotype abnormalities in de novo primary myelodysplastic syndromes: a study on 331 patients from a single institution.

The impact of clinical parameters, International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) scores/cytogenetic categories, and some single cytogenetic defects on overall survival (OS) and time to myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS)/AML progression (progression-free interval (PFI)) was evaluated in 331 MDS patients. Statistical analysis demonstrated that OS and PFI were significantly affected by all these parameters. Since single 7q- showed a better survival than the poor IPSS cytogenetic category (P=0.009), it was considered as a new prognostic entity ('modified IPSS categories'). In multivariate analysis OS was significantly influenced by age, marrow blast cell percentage, number of cytopenias and either modified or standard IPSS cytogenetic categories; hazard ratios for MDS/AML progression were influenced by all the former, except for age and cytopenias. Multivariate analysis of del(7)(q31q35) confirmed the results of univariate analysis, but the Akaike Information Criterion showed no difference in evaluating OS and PFI between the modified and standard IPSS cytogenetic grouping. In conclusion, (i) chromosome defects as grouped by IPSS and blast cell percentage are the most relevant parameters for predicting OS and PFI; (ii) the prognostic power of the IPSS cytogenetic grouping is not ameliorated by the introduction of del(7)(q31q35) as a new entity; (iii) complex karyotypes have a prognostic value independent of blast cell percentage.

Aged↗

Relationships between allergic inflammation and nasal airflow in children with persistent allergic rhinitis due to mite sensitization.

BACKGROUND: Allergic rhinitis is associated with Th2-dependent inflammation. Nasal obstruction is the most typical symptom in children with mite allergy. OBJECTIVES: The aim of this study was to evaluate the possible relationships among nasal symptoms, allergic inflammation, including inflammatory cells and cytokine pattern, and nasal airflow in children with persistent allergic rhinitis because of mite sensitization. METHODS: Twenty children (13 males and seven females, mean age 13.4 +/- 1.6 years) with persistent rhinitis because of mite allergy were evaluated. All of them had moderate-severe grade of nasal obstruction. Total symptom score (TSS), rhinomanometry, nasal lavage, and nasal scraping were obtained in all subjects. Inflammatory cells were counted by conventional staining; interleukin (IL)-5, and IL-8 were measured by immunoassay on fluids recovered from nasal lavage. RESULTS: Eosinophils were significantly associated with TSS (R = 74.4%, P = 0.0002), with IL-5 (R = 90.6%, P < 0.0001) and with nasal flow (R = -69%, P = 0.0007), but not with IL-8 (R = 0.1%, P = 0.995). Eosinophil levels were shown to independently predict nasal flow (P < 0.001), with flow decreasing linearly for increasing eosinophils, together with a significant effect of neutrophils (P = 0.016, linear increase in flow) and a borderline effect of IL-8 (P = 0.063, linear increase in flow). CONCLUSIONS: This study demonstrates the close association between IL-5 concentration and eosinophil infiltration. In addition, there is clear evidence concerning the relationship between eosinophil infiltration and nasal airflow. Thus, nasal eosinophils can be regarded as the most important predictor of upper airway function. These findings constitute first evidence of the relationship between nasal airflow impairment and Th2-related eosinophilic inflammation in children with persistent allergic rhinitis because of mite sensitization.

Adolescent↗

Near infrared spectroscopy monitoring during carotid endarterectomy: which threshold value is critical?

OBJECTIVES: Retrospectively to verify which decreasing percentage in regional oxygen saturation (rSO(2)) identified patients with good collateralisation during carotid artery cross clamp. MATERIALS AND METHODS: During 594 endarterectomies under general anaesthesia the decreasing percentage from preclamp value to value detected in the first 2 min after clamping the CCA and/or ICA was calculated in real time. No temporary shunt was placed in any case. ROC analysis was performed to determine the optimal cut-off for rSO(2) decrease to identify the occurrence of neurological complications. RESULTS: A cut-off of 11.7% was identified as optimal. Sensitivity and specificity were 75% (95% CI 71-78) and 77% (95% CI 74-80), respectively. The cut-off of 20% had a lower sensitivity (30%) and a higher specificity (98%) to identify patients with complications, with positive and negative predictive value of 37 and 98%, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: The study suggest that a relative decrease in rSO(2) of <20% from preclamp to early cross clamp value has a high negative predictive value, i.e. if rSO(2) does non decrease more than 20%, ischemia by hypoperfusion is unlikely and a shunt should not be necessary. Moreover, a relative decrease >20% may not always indicate intraoperative neurological complications.

Aged↗

Clinical characteristics and factors predicting evolution of asymptomatic IgM monoclonal gammopathies and IgM-related disorders.

We evaluated the prognostic features of 384 asymptomatic IgM-monoclonal gammopathies (aIgM-MGs) and 74 IgM-related disorders (IgM-RDs), two clinically distinct groups as proposed by the Second International Workshop on Waldenström's Macroglobulinemia (WM). The cumulative probability of evolution to lymphoid malignancy at 5 and 10 years was 8% (95% CI, 5-13%) and 29% (95% CI, 21-38%), respectively, in aIgM-MGs; it was 9% (95% CI, 4-20%) and 16% (95% CI, 7-31%), respectively, in IgM-RDs (P=0.26). At a median follow-up of 45 months (12-233), 45 aIgM-MGs (11.7%) evolved to symptomatic WM (n=41), non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) (n=2), IgM multiple myeloma (n=1), and primary amyloidosis (n=1). At a median follow-up of 60 months (13-195), seven IgM-RDs (9.5%) evolved to symptomatic WM (n=6), and B-chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (n=1). At univariate analysis, in aIgM-MGs bone marrow lymphoplasmacytic infiltration, high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), haemoglobin level, IgM size, and lymphocytosis significantly correlated with evolution probability. At multivariate analysis, the latter two parameters strongly correlated with prognosis, haemoglobin being associated with a trend for a higher progression risk. In IgM-RDs IgM size, neutropenia, lymphocytosis, detectable Bence Jones proteinuria, and high ESR were associated with evolution probability. In conclusion, asymptomatic IgM-MGs and IgM-RDs are distinct clinical entities with similar probability of transformation to lymphoid malignancy.

Adult↗

Intraepithelial lymphocytes in the villous tip: do they indicate potential coeliac disease?

BACKGROUND: The counting of intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELs) in the villous tips of architecturally normal small bowel biopsy specimens was proposed as a method to measure mucosal infiltration in gluten sensitive patients. AIMS: To apply this straightforward method in duodenal biopsy specimens from patients affected by potential coeliac disease (PCD) to verify whether it can discriminate these patients from controls. METHODS: Paraffin wax embedded duodenal sections from 11 patients affected by PCD were stained with an antihuman CD3 antibody. Sections from 19 patients affected by treated coeliac disease (TCD) and 17 patients in whom coeliac disease was excluded were stained with the same antibody to serve as controls. The slides were examined blindly. IELs/20 enterocytes in five randomly chosen villous tips were counted. Patients affected by PCD were all on a gluten containing diet. They had an architecturally normal duodenal mucosa and were positive for endomysial antibody. Both TCD and non-coeliac controls were negative for endomysial antibody. RESULTS: The mean villous tip IEL scores were 4.6 (SD, 1.5; range, 1.4-7.8) in non-coeliac controls, 7.9 (SD, 4.0; range, 2.0-18.6) in TCD, and 9.2 (SD, 4.7; range, 5.8-21.8) in patients with PCD. The difference between PCD and non-coeliac controls was significant. CONCLUSIONS: This is a very simple and sufficiently reliable method to count IELs. In patients with an architecturally normal duodenal mucosa, the IEL count in villous tips helps to distinguish between patients with PCD and non-coeliac controls.

Adolescent↗

Diagnosis of visceral leishmaniasis: the sensitivities and specificities of traditional methods and a nested PCR assay.

In the present study, 67 patients suspected to be cases of visceral leishmaniasis (VL) were each checked for leishmanial infection by the microscopical evaluation of various biological specimens, in-vitro culture, serology and an assay based on nested PCR. Most (35) of the subjects were immunocompetent (IC) but 32 were immunodeficient (ID) as the result of HIV infection (18 cases), treatment to prevent transplanted organs being rejected (six) or haematological malignancies (eight). Forty-one (61.2%) of the subjects (19 IC subjects, 12 HIV-positive patients, four transplant patients and six patients with malignancies) were considered true cases of VL. For the IC subjects, only the production and microscopical examination of leucocytoconcentrates and cultures of Buffy coats gave sensitivities of <80%, the results of the other methods showing higher sensitivities and almost perfect agreement with the 'gold-standard' diagnoses. For the ID subjects, however, only the serological tests and the PCR gave reasonable sensitivities (of >80%). For the initial diagnosis of leishmaniasis in ID patients, IFAT and western blots may be useful, as, among the present ID patients, they gave sensitivities (of 80.9% and 88.2%, respectively) that were almost as high as that for the PCR, and specificities of 100%. In the diagnosis of VL in either IC or ID patients, the assay based on a nested PCR appeared to be particularly reliable, with sensitivities of 88.9% and 95.2%, respectively, and a specificity of 100% in both groups of patients. The testing of bone-marrow aspirates by PCR revealed very few VL cases who were not found positive when samples of their peripheral blood were checked in the same assay. For both IC and ID subjects therefore, the use of the PCR-based method to test samples of peripheral blood (which can be collected much more easily than bone-marrow aspirates and with much less pain for the subject) is recommended.

AIDS-Related Opportunistic Infections↗

Pelvic ultrasound evaluation in patients with Turner syndrome during treatment with growth hormone.

OBJECTIVES: Treatment with growth hormone (GH), alone or in combination with oxandrolone, is used in patients affected by Turner syndrome to improve growth velocity and adult height. Since GH interacts with gonadotropins in the stimulation of the human ovary, the aim of our study was to evaluate the possible effects of GH administration on uterine and ovarian characteristics. METHODS: We performed pelvic ultrasound assessment in 29 patients with Turner syndrome aged 7.5-16.6 years (19 with 45,X karyotype; 10 with variant karyotypes) before and during treatment with GH alone. Uterine volume and ovarian size and morphology were compared to those of 23 age-matched girls with Turner syndrome not treated with GH. Both patients and controls were divided into prepubertal and pubertal groups. Cross-sectional and longitudinal studies (before and every 6 months during GH treatment for 2 years) were performed. RESULTS: We observed a significantly higher uterine anteroposterior diameter and volume in younger (< or = 11 years) GH-treated Turner syndrome girls than in those who were untreated. Also visualization and heterogeneous echopattern of the ovaries were significantly more frequent in treated than in untreated Turner syndrome patients, particularly before the age of 11 years. The longitudinal study showed a significant increase in uterine volume, more related to treatment than to age. Spontaneous breast development and menarche were found more frequently in GH-treated Turner syndrome girls. CONCLUSION: Growth hormone therapy can have a co-gonadotropin role in patients with Turner syndrome.

Adolescent↗

Langerhans cell histiocytosis in adults. Report from the International Registry of the Histiocyte Society.

Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH), characterised by the infiltration of one or more organs by large mononuclear cells, can develop in persons of any age. Although the features of this disease are well described in children, they remain poorly defined in adults. From January 2000 to June 2001, 274 adults from 13 countries, with biopsy-proven adult LCH, were registered with the International Histiocyte Society Registry. Information was collected about clinical presentation, family history, associated conditions, cigarette smoking and treatment, to assist in future management decisions in patients aged 18 years and older. There were slightly more males than females (143:126), and the mean ages at the onset and diagnosis of disease were 33 years (standard deviation (S.D.) 15 years) and 35 years (S.D. 14 years), respectively. 2 patients had consanguineous parents, and 1 had a family history of LCH; 129 reported smoking (47.1%); 17 (6.2%) had been diagnosed with different types of cancer. Single-system LCH, found in 86 patients (31.4%), included isolated pulmonary involvement in 44 cases; 188 patients (68.6%) had multisystem disease; 81 (29.6%) had diabetes insipidus. Initial treatment consisted of vinblastine administered with or without steroids, to 82 patients (29.9%), including 9 who had received it with etoposide, which was the sole agent given to 19 patients. 236 patients were considered evaluable for survival. At a median follow-up of 28 months from diagnosis, 15 patients (6.4%) had died (death rate, 1.5/100 person years, 95% Confidence Interval (95% CI) 0.9-2.4). The probability of survival at 5 years postdiagnosis was 92.3% (95% CI 85.6-95.9) overall, 100% for patients with single-system disease (n=37), 87.8% (95% CI 54.9-97.2) for isolated pulmonary disease (n=34), and 91.7% (95% CI 83.6-95.9) for multisystem disease (n=163). Survival did not differ significantly among patients with multisystem disease, with or without liver or lung involvement) 5-year survival 93.6% (95% CI 84.7-97.4) versus 87.5% (95% CI 65.5-95.9), respectively; P value 0.1). LCH in adults is most often a multisystem disease with the highest mortality seen in patients with isolated pulmonary involvement. It should be included in the differential diagnosis of disseminated or localised disease of the bone, skin and mucosa, as well as the lung and the endocrine and central nervous system, regardless of the age of the patient. A prospective international therapeutic study is warranted.

Adult↗

Is FISH a relevant prognostic tool in myelodysplastic syndromes with a normal chromosome pattern on conventional cytogenetics? A study on 57 patients.

Conventional cytogenetics (CC) at clinical diagnosis shows a normal karyotype in 40-60% of de novo myelodysplastic syndromes (MDSs). Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) might detect occult aberrations in these patients. Therefore, we have used FISH to check 57 MDS patients who were karyo-typically normal on CC. At clinical diagnosis, FISH revealed a clonal abnormality in 18-28% interphase cells from nine patients, five of whom also presented the same defect on metaphase FISH. In five out of nine patients, the occult defect effected a change in the international prognostic scoring system (IPSS). An abnormal FISH pattern was significantly correlated with marrow blast cell percentage (P<10(-3)) and IPSS (P<10(-3)). Patients with an occult abnormality showed an overall survival and event-free survival significantly inferior in comparison to those of patients with normal FISH (P<10(-3), P<10(-3)). Death and AML progression were 15- and eight-fold more frequent in FISH abnormal patients. In conclusion, occult defects (1) are revealed in about 15% of CC normal MDS patients, (2) are overlooked by CC either because of the poor quality of metaphases or their submicroscopic nature, (3) are clinically relevant as they may cause a change in the IPSS category and may identify a fraction of CC normal patients with an unfavorable clinical outcome.

Adult↗

Loss of heterozygosity at 18q21 region in gastric cancer involves a number of cancer-related genes and correlates with stage and histology, but lacks independent prognostic value.

Several studies support a role of 18q21 LOH, involving the DCC locus, in colorectal cancer progression; however, its contribution to the natural history of gastric cancer is less clear. Recently, a number of cancer-related genes have been mapped in the 18q21 region, either centromeric or telomeric to DCC. This study searched for 18q21 LOH in 161 gastric cancers representative of all tumour stages and main histological types. To this purpose, seven highly polymorphic markers were used flanking the 18q21 band and spanning the entire region. Thirty-four out of 147 (23.1%) informative cases showed LOH. In 27 of 34 cases (79%), LOH involved all the informative loci. The remaining seven cases showed LOH at more telomeric sites and retained heterozygosity at more centromeric markers, mostly those proximal to the DCC gene. A strong correlation between 18q21 LOH and level of gastric wall invasion, lymph node metastases, or stage was found in cohesive (glandular+solid) and mixed tumours, but not in diffuse cancers. Cox univariate and multivariate analysis showed that invasion level, lymph node metastases, distant metastases, TNM stage, and histology were effective predictors of survival, whereas 18q21 LOH did not show predictive power. The simultaneous deletion of a variety of cancer-related genes with different and even opposite roles might explain why, apparently, 18q21 LOH does not per se contribute significantly to the natural history of gastric cancer, despite strong correlation with stage.

Chromosomes, Human, Pair 18↗

Mortality in psychiatric patients 5 to 21 years after hospital admission in Italy.

BACKGROUND: Mental disorders have an increased mortality risk. However, most data have been provided by few countries, some mental disorders have received little attention, long-term studies of large samples are scarce, and insufficient control for confounding variables has lead to artefactual inconsistencies across studies. The aims of this study were: to quantify the mortality risk in psychiatric patients 5 to 21 years after hospital admission and to investigate temporal trends in mortality risk and predictive factors associated with mortality. METHOD: All patients admitted to an in-patient psychiatric unit in Italy between 1978 and 1994 were included and vital status and death causes were determined up to 21 years after admission. The observed number of deaths in the sample was compared with the expected number of deaths in the general population. Cox proportional hazard models were fitted to identify predictors of mortality. RESULTS: Mortality from natural and unnatural causes was higher than expected across all mental disorders. Standardized mortality risk was higher in males (SMR = 4.55; 95% CI 4.17-4.97) than in females (SMR = 3.43; 95% CI 3.07-3.83). Individuals aged less than 40 years were at higher risk in both sexes. The first several years following admission were characterized by a faster decline in survival. Several demographic and clinical factors were predictors of mortality. CONCLUSIONS: Mortality is high in individuals with mental disorders. Prevention of unnatural death causes is an important goal though insufficient to abate excess mortality, since natural death causes account for it to a larger extent.

Adult↗

Catheter ablation and antiarrhythmic drugs for haemodynamically tolerated post-infarction ventricular tachycardia; long-term outcome in relation to acute electrophysiological findings.

AIMS: Radiofrequency catheter ablation is effective at terminating ventricular tachycardia, but the overall clinical role of the technique in patients with a prior myocardial infarction is still debated, due to the uncertainties of the long-term reliability of the procedure. The purpose of this study was to prospectively investigate the relationship between acute results obtained by catheter ablation and long-term outcome in a homogeneous population of patients with post-myocardial infarction ventricular tachycardia. METHODS AND RESULTS: One hundred and twenty-four consecutive patients with recurrent, drug-refractory, haemodynamically tolerated ventricular tachycardia were included in the study. This population accounted for 30% of the patients with post-myocardial infarction ventricular tachycardia admitted between April 1992 and September 1997 to the investigating centres. The ablation was successful in eliminating sustained ventricular tachycardia in 91 of them (73%); a partial result was obtained in 21 (17%) and failure in 12 (10%). Low dose amiodarone and/or beta-blockers were maintained in 86% of the patients. Over a median follow-up of 41.5 months (interquartile range 30.5-59.5 months), there were 15 deaths (12%), three of which were sudden (2.4%); the 12 remaining patients died of heart failure. Event-free survival analysis showed a significantly lower ventricular tachycardia recurrence rate in patients with a successful procedure as compared to those with failure or a partial result (19% vs 53% at one year and 27% vs 60% at 3 years, P=0.003). A repeat procedure was performed in 15 patients with early recurrences and was followed in all by long-term success. Of those who submitted to a second procedure, 93/124 patients (75%) are free of ventricular tachycardia recurrences. An implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD), following procedure failure, was implanted in 13 patients (11%) of the study population. CONCLUSIONS: Radiofrequency catheter ablation is effective in a wide population of patients with recurrent tolerated ventricular tachycardia, with very low sudden death and cardiac mortality rates over the long-term. Persistent ventricular tachycardia inducibility after catheter ablation requires an ICD implant and/or repeat ablation.

Adrenergic beta-Antagonists↗

Halogen versus high-intensity light-curing of uncoated and pre-coated brackets: a shear bond strength study.

AIM: To evaluate the shear bond strengths of adhesive pre-coated brackets (APC) and conventional uncoated brackets (Victory) cured with two different light-curing units: a conventional halogen light (Visilux 2) and a micro-xenon light (Aurys). SETTING: Ex vivo study MATERIALS AND METHODS: Sixty freshly extracted bovine permanent mandibular incisors were randomly assigned to one of four groups, each group consisting of 15 specimens. Two groups (one for each type of bracket) were exposed to the halogen light for 20 seconds and used as controls. The remaining two groups were cured with the micro-xenon light for 2 seconds. After 24 hours, all samples were tested in a shear mode on an Instron Machine. Analysis was by two-way ANOVA with Scheffé's test for comparisons, Kaplan-Meier survival estimates, and Cox model. The Chi-square (chi(2)) test was used to determine significant differences in the ARI scores. RESULTS: The mean shear bond strength of the uncoated brackets cured with Visilux 2 was significantly higher than those of all the other groups tested. Both groups cured with Visilux 2 produced significantly higher mean shear bond strengths than those of the corresponding groups cured with Aurys. No statistically significant differences were found between the two groups cured with Aurys. CONCLUSIONS: Compared to halogen light-curing, the micro-xenon light enables the clinician to reduce significantly the curing time of both APC and uncoated brackets, and although significantly lower, their shear bond strengths may be clinically acceptable.

Analysis of Variance↗