Biomedical subjects
Publications and source records attributed to D DeLong.
An effective occupational health and safety program is critical to ensure personnel safety in working with animals. The authors present data compiled from AAALAC international site visits conducted between 1993 and 1999, which indicate how programs can fall short of current recommendations.
PURPOSE: The objective of this study was to perform the dosimetry and evaluate the dose-response relationships in newly diagnosed patients with malignant brain tumors treated by direct injections of (131)I-labeled 81C6 monoclonal antibody (MAb) into surgically created resection cavities (SCRCs). METHODS AND MATERIALS: Absorbed doses to the 2-cm-thick shell as measured from the margins of the resection cavity interface were estimated for 42 patients with primary brain tumors. MR images were used to assess the enhanced-rim volume as a function of time after radiolabeled MAb therapy. Biopsy samples were obtained from 15 patients and 1 autopsy. RESULTS: The average absorbed dose [range] to the 2-cm shell region was 32 [3-59] Gy. For the endpoint of minimal time to MR contrast enhancement, the optimal absorbed dose and initial dose-rate were 43 +/- 16 Gy and 0. 41 +/- 0.10 Gy/h, respectively. There was a correlation between the absorbed dose and dose rate to the shell region and biopsy outcome (tumor recurrence, radionecrosis, and tumor recurrence and/or radionecrosis). In this Phase I study, the maximum tolerated dose (MTD) was 120 mCi. At this MTD, the estimated average absorbed dose and initial dose rate to the 2-cm shell were 41 [9-89] Gy and 0.51 [0.24-1.13] Gy/h, respectively. These values are in agreement with the optimal values based on the time to MR lesion rim enhancement. CONCLUSIONS: The average absorbed dose to the 2-cm shell region varied considerably and mainly depended on cavity volume. In future clinical trials, the administered activity of (131)I-labeled 81C6 MAb may be adjusted based on cavity volume in order to deliver the optimal absorbed dose of 43 Gy rather than giving a fixed administered activity.
OBJECTIVE: Our objective was to determine the diagnostic usefulness of sonography for revealing a recurrent acoustic shadowing pattern when imaging for possible uterine leiomyoma. SUBJECTS AND METHODS: During an 18-month period, all pelvic masses discovered on sonography were prospectively examined for recurrent refractory shadows. Sonograms of 222 masses with a definitive final diagnosis were reviewed by two radiologists unaware of the follow-up results. Each mass was analyzed for the presence of three or more recurrent refractory shadows, each of which did not arise from an echogenic lead point. After all masses were rated independently, a consensus rating was reached for any discrepancy between observers. RESULTS: Of the 222 masses, 152 (68%) were leiomyomas. The remainder resulted from a wide variety of other uterine and adnexal disorders. Agreement between the two observers regarding refractory shadows was excellent. Kappa coefficients were 0.86 at transabdominal and 0.96 at transvaginal approaches. Sensitivity of the refractory shadow pattern for leiomyomas was higher for transvaginal (87%) than for transabdominal (52%) sonography. Specificity of the refractory shadow pattern was 89% for transvaginal and 92% for transabdominal sonography. Using logistic regression analysis, we found a statistically significant association between a refractory shadowing pattern and leiomyoma for both transabdominal and transvaginal sonography (p < 0.001). CONCLUSION: Recurrent refractory shadowing in a pelvic mass on sonography is highly suggestive of leiomyoma and can be a useful diagnostic clue for distinguishing leiomyomas from other pelvic masses.
STUDY OBJECTIVES: To evaluate and compare the utility of measurement of troponin T and the creatine kinase MB subunit (CK-MB) for risk stratification of ED patients with possible myocardial ischemia. METHODS: Prospective observational study of ED patients with symptoms of possible myocardial ischemia with early, single sample serologic testing for cardiac troponin T and CK-MB using an identity-unlinked process. Chart review (ED, inpatient, outpatient), and telephone and mail surveys identified adverse events (AEs) during the 14 days following enrollment. AEs recorded included death, respiratory or cardiac arrest, myocardial infarction (MI), atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, pulmonary edema, conduction disturbances, and recurrent angina. Measures of the predictive ability for AEs were calculated for troponin T, CK-MB, and a combined troponin T/CK-MB index (defined as positive if either troponin T or CK-MB levels exceeded threshold values). RESULTS: Among 292 study patients, 45 (15.4%) experienced at least one AE, including seven deaths and 12 MIs. The troponin T result was positive in 34 patients, and the CK-MB result was positive in 15 patients; 6 patients had positive results for both markers and 43 patients had a positive combined troponin T/CK-MB index. Odds ratios (ORs) for occurrence of AEs among all patients were 4.4 (1.8 to 10.2), 10.0 (3.0 to 36.0), and 4.5 (2.0 to 9.8) for troponin T, CK-MB and the troponin T/CK-MB index, respectively. Both markers were individually predictive of AEs (troponin T = 4.3; CK-MB = 7.5) among all those with chest pain. Only the CK-MB level was significantly predictive of AEs among those presenting with symptoms other than chest pain (OR = 24.3 [1.1, 1448]), whereas only the troponin T level was significantly predictive among patients representing a disposition dilemma for the emergency physician (OR = 5.7 [1.4, 20.7]). When compared, the ORs for troponin T and CK-MB were not significantly different for any patient subgroup. The troponin T/CK-MB index did not have a higher prognostic value than either troponin T or CK-MB alone in any subgroup studied. CONCLUSION: A positive test result for either troponin T or CK-MB in the ED successfully identified patients at significantly higher risk of adverse events during the 2 weeks following their ED visit. The two markers may complement each other in that each appears to have prognostic ability among a unique patient subgroup. ED marker measurement can provide useful prognostic information for patients with a broad spectrum of presentations consistent with possible myocardial ischemia.
Explore the source record for details and available documents.
Explore the source record for details and available documents.
We investigated the role of stimulus-response compatibility in influencing manual reactions to a moving visual target in a videogame (pong). 40 right-handed university men were assigned randomly to one of two experimental conditions, the normal game condition or a reverse control condition in which the response device on the right controls the left game paddle and the device on the left controls the right paddle. Subjects in the normal condition performed marginally better playing pong when seated on the right when seated on the left, consistent with earlier findings. However, subjects in the reverse control condition showed the reverse effect, a left-side advantage. These findings suggest that compatibility between location of the moving target (the ball) and either handedness or hand used to respond may have been responsible for the right-side advantage observed in the normal-game condition.
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs) and immunoblots were used to measure serum IgG responses in rabbits which were intranasally challenged with Pasteurella multocida. The responses to two serologically distinct isolates (isolate 1, serotype 3:A and isolate 10, serotype 1:D) were compared and then correlated with the ability of the isolates to colonize the nasal passages. Five rabbits were challenged with each isolate (10(5) CFU); nasal washings and sera were collected weekly for 8 weeks. Serum IgG levels were measured by ELISA and immunoblots, using bacterial whole cells and lipopolysaccharides (LPSs) as antigens. The serum IgG response to isolate 1 was evident earlier and was significantly stronger than the response to isolate 10 (P less than 0.025). Immunoblots supported this observation and confirmed that both isolates elicited antibodies which reacted with bacterial protein and LPS antigens, with antibody to protein detectable before antibody to LPS. Results of weekly nasal cultures suggested that the antibody response data could be explained by a difference in the ability of the isolates to colonize the nasal passages: isolate 1 was recovered from four of five rabbits for 8 weeks, whereas isolate 10 was recovered for a maximum of 2 weeks, even when the challenge dose was increased tenfold. The strong response elicited by isolate 1 was therefore probably a result of persistent colonization, whereas the weak response to isolate 10 may have resulted from an inability to persistently colonize the nasal passages. The results of this study demonstrate that isolates of P. multocida elicit antibody responses of differing intensities and vary in their ability to colonize the nasal passages.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)
Plasmids have not been reported for isolates of Pasteurella multocida from rabbits. We assayed 28 isolates of rabbit P. multocida for plasmids and sought to determine whether or not plasmid presence correlated with clinical or pathologic findings, serotype, toxin production, possession of pili, or biochemical characteristics. Fourteen isolates bore a single 1.6 Md (covalently closed circular form in 0.7% agarose gels) plasmid. An additional isolate had two plasmids which migrated as a closely-spaced doublet, centered around 1.6 Md. Eleven isolates appeared to have identical plasmids, according to Hae III and Hinf I digests. The apparent linear size of this common plasmid in 2% agarose gels was 2.1 Md, as calculated from the sums of the sizes of Hae III or Hinf I digestion fragments. Linearization of the common plasmid with Msp I produced an apparent size of 2.5 Md in 0.7% agarose gels. No correlations between presence of the common plasmid and somatic serotype, toxigenicity, presence of pili, antimicrobial resistance, selected biochemical characteristics, anatomic site from which the bacteria were cultured, or disease status of the host were found.
Serum samples from seventy-five, 3- to 12-week-old and 16 retired breeder male Swiss mice from a conventional colony with enzootic chronic subclinical Pasteurella pneumotropica infection were tested by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and Western blots for IgG antibodies to whole cell (WC) and lipooligosaccharide (LOS) antigens of P. pneumotropica. In 3- to 12-week-old mice, serum antibody levels to LOS exceeded those to the WC preparation. Western blots of sera from mice in this age group substantiated that a major component of the early IgG antibody response was directed against LOS antigens. Higher antibody levels to both antigen preparations in 3-week-old mice compared to mice 4 and 6 weeks old were interpreted as reflecting a decline in antibodies acquired from the dam. Active immunity indicative of infection was first detected at 8 weeks of age. Serum samples from retired breeder mice (28 weeks of age) also had substantial antibody titers to LOS but, in contrast to sera from mice in the younger age groups, retired breeders had significantly greater IgG reactivity to WC preparations than to LOS antigens. The superior specificity of the LOS antigen compared to the WC preparation in the ELISA was demonstrated by testing serum samples from retired breeder mice against WC and LOS antigens from P. ureae, P. multocida, and P. hemolytica. The reactivity of IgG against LOS antigens from these organisms was negligible, whereas substantial titers were evident to WC antigens. This ELISA, using LOS preparations as antigen, is a useful serologic assay for the detection of subclinical P. pneumotropica infection in mice.
Explore the source record for details and available documents.
Explore the source record for details and available documents.
We have examined the ability of in vivo treatment of mice with recombinant interleukin 2 (rIL-2) to affect natural immunity measured against tumor (YAC-1) or virally infected (herpes simplex type 1) target cells. rIL-2 treatment leads to significant increases in natural killer/lymphocyte-activated killer (NK/LAK) function and spleen cells recovered. This effect is dose dependent and strain related. The latter parameter correlated with the pretreatment NK activity level of the strain. The rIL-2 induced NK/LAK augmentation is also kinetically restricted as treatment must have occurred within 48-72 h of assay to be effective. The rIL-2 therapy effectively enhances both antitumor and antiviral NK/LAK activity and results in a noticeable increase in asialo-GM1-positive cells in the spleens of treated mice as well as a significant increase in IL-2 receptor expression as monitored by either cytometry or radioligand binding. In vivo treatment of mice with an antibody directed to the ASGM1 determinant effectively reduces the rIL-2 augmentation of both antitumor and antiviral activity even though this treatment does not affect the pretreatment level of antiviral activity. Various natural and induced immunodeficiency states (immunotherapy, irradiation, immunosuppressive drugs, cytoreductive drugs) have been examined for the ability of in vivo treatment with rIL-2 to enhance NK/LAK activity. In vivo rIL-2 administration is differentially effective in enhancing NK/LAK activity in these situations. Notably, in these induced immunodeficiency states, although NK/LAK activity is commonly enhanced, the number of spleen cells recovered often is only marginally affected. Thus, as expected, a limiting aspect in this use of a natural immunomodulator is the number of potentially responsive cells present in the immunodeficiency condition. In addition, correlations between rIL-2 effect, several of the immunodeficiency states, and vascular leak syndrome are briefly discussed.
A dot-immunobinding assay was developed to detect serum IgG specific for lipopolysaccharide of rabbit isolates of P. multocida. The assay detected serum IgG as early as 1 week after experimental subclinical nasal infection, whereas 8 weeks were required to detect antibody by a gel diffusion precipitin test. The assay was more reliable than nasal cultures, in that up to 46% of 16 weekly nasal washings of some infected rabbits failed to yield P. multocida. The bacterial antigen (proteinase k digested cell lysate) used in the assay reacted with IgG that did not cross-react with lipopolysaccharide antigens of B. bronchiseptica, P. pneumotropica or P. hemolytica. The assay is sensitive and specific, easily performed, cost effective, requires no special laboratory instruments and provides a permanent easily stored record.
The lipopolysaccharides (LPSs) of five isolates of Pasteurella multocida from rabbits were characterized by sodium dodecyl sulfate-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis, immunoblots, and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. Silver-stained sodium dodecyl sulfate-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis profiles of purified unaggregated LPSs resembled those of semirough strains of gram-negative enterobacteria and consisted of one or two bands that migrated within an interval just ahead or slightly behind the migration of the Ra chemotype of "Salmonella minnesota," which has a molecular size of 4.3 kilodaltons. Polyclonal rabbit antisera to P. multocida whole cells used in Western blots and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays of unabsorbed and LPS-absorbed antisera revealed that the LPS of these isolates of P. multocida contained at least two types of antigens: a nonserospecific antigen and a serospecific antigen. The LPSs of four isolates each had a different serospecific antigen. The nonserospecific antigen was expressed in two isolates and was the only demonstrable LPS antigen in one other isolate.
Rotazyme II, which is a shorter version of Rotazyme (less than 3 h), was compared with electron microscopy and Rotazyme for sensitivity and specificity on 229 human stool specimens. Compared with electron microscopy, the newer assay was found to be 99.4% sensitive and 97.3% specific for an overall agreement of 98.7%. After resolution of discordant results by blocking tests, the Rotazyme II enzyme immunoassay was shown to be more sensitive than electron microscopy and, therefore, 100% specific.
The objective of this study was to determine the frequency and significance of the MR findings of incomplete shell collapse for detecting implant rupture in a series of surgically removed breast prostheses. MR images of 86 breast implants in 44 patients were studied retrospectively and correlated with surgical findings at explantation. MR findings included (a) complete shell collapse (linguine sign), 21 implants; (b) incomplete shell collapse (subcapsular line sign, teardrop sign, and keyhole sign), 33 implants; (c) radial folds, 31 implants; and (d) normal, 1 implant. The subcapsular line sign was seen in 26 implants, the teardrop sign was seen in 27 implants, and the keyhole sign was seen in 23 implants. At surgery, 48 implants were found to be ruptured and 38 were intact. The MR findings of ruptured implants showed signs of incomplete collapse in 52% (n = 25), linguine sign in 44% (n = 21), and radial folds in 4% (n = 2). The linguine sign perfectly predicted implant rupture, but sensitivity was low. Findings of incomplete shell collapse improved sensitivity and negative predictive values, and the subcapsular line sign produced a significant incremental increase in predictive ability. MRI signs of incomplete shell collapse were more common than the linguine sign in ruptured implants and are significant contributors to the high sensitivity and negative predictive values of MRI for evaluating implant integrity.
OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this study was to evaluate opacification of the collecting system and ureters using compression computed tomography (CT) urography compared with conventional intravenous urography (IVU). MATERIALS AND METHODS: Fifty consecutive patients underwent compression CT urography as part of a dedicated renal CT. A compression belt was applied prior to nephrographic phase imaging. Excretory phase scans were acquired through the kidneys 3 minutes post injection with the compression belt in place. The compression belt was then released, and scans were obtained through the ureters. Three independent readers then scored opacification of the collecting system and ureters on a scale of 0-2 (0 = no opacification, 1 = partial opacification, 2 = full opacification and distension). Fifty consecutive nonmatched IVUs were scored by segment by the same readers. Comparison of the two modalities was made using the Mann-Whitney U test. Interobserver agreement was assessed by the Kappa coefficient. RESULTS: CT demonstrated significantly better opacification (p < or = 0.02) of the upper and lower pole pelvicalyceal systems and midureters bilaterally. There was no difference in opacification of the proximal and distal ureters by CT compared with IVU. The Kappa coefficient was 0.53. CONCLUSIONS: Compression CT urography yields equal or better opacification of the collecting system and ureters when compared with IVU, and shows promise for the routine evaluation of the renal excretory system.