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Biomedical subjects

J B Fleming

Publications and source records attributed to J B Fleming.

At least 19 recordsLinked to original sources

Laparoscopy alone is superior to peritoneal cytology in staging gastric and esophageal carcinoma.

BACKGROUND: Laparoscopy identifies metastatic disease in patients with upper gastrointestinal malignancies; however, it has been suggested that cytological examination of peritoneal washings may increase the diagnostic yield. We hypothesize that the addition of cytologic washings to a standardized staging laparoscopy is unnecessary for the identification of intraabdominal metastasis in patients with gastric/esophageal cancer. METHODS: Forty patients with gastric/esophageal cancer were prospectively evaluated. Patients successfully underwent a diagnostic laparoscopy protocol (with biopsies) during which peritoneal washings were obtained and processed for cytologic analysis. Laparoscopic versus cytologic identification of intraabdominal metastasis were compared. RESULTS: Forty patients successfully completed laparoscopy with collection of peritoneal washings. Laparoscopic examination of the peritoneal cavity upstaged 21 (52.5%) patients. Laparoscopic examination consistently identified a statistically significant higher number of positive patients than cytologic examination of peritoneal washings (p = 0.001) and examination of cytologic washings alone failed to identify 45% of patients with positive findings and laparoscopy. The addition of cytologic examination added no additional stage IV patients to the laparoscopy-negative group. CONCLUSION: A standardized laparoscopic examination alone is sufficient for the identification of intraabdominal metastatic disease in patients with gastric and esophageal cancer.

Abdominal Neoplasms↗

The effect of hepatic inflow occlusion on laparoscopic radiofrequency ablation using simulated tumors.

BACKGROUND: The purpose of this study was to determine the effect of hepatic inflow occlusion (the Pringle maneuver) on laparoscopic radiofrequency (RF) ablation. METHODS: Using a previously validated agarose tissue-mimic model, 1-cm simulated hepatic tumors (three per animal) were laparoscopically ablated in five pigs with normal perfusion and then in five pigs with hepatic artery and portal vein occlusion. Energy was applied until tissue temperature reached 100 degrees C (warm-up) and thereafter for eight min. Specimens were examined immediately after treatment. RESULTS: Vascular occlusion was successful in all cases per color-flow Doppler ultrasound. Pringle time was 11.4 +/- 1.6 min. Warm-up time (2.7 +/- 1.4 vs 20.2 +/- 14.0 min) was significantly faster in the Pringle group. Ablation diameter (34.8 +/- 2.9 vs 24.7 +/- 3.1 mm), proportion of round/ovoid lesions (93% vs 20%), ablation symmetry (100% vs 40%), and margin distance (5.1 +/- 3.0 vs 1.1 +/- 1.2 mm) were significantly better for the Pringle group than the No Pringle group, respectively. CONCLUSION: Using a Pringle maneuver during laparoscopic RF ablation significantly enhances ablation geometry and results in larger margins.

Animals↗

Comparison of video trainer and virtual reality training systems on acquisition of laparoscopic skills.

Training on a video trainer or computer-based minimally invasive surgery trainer leads to improved benchtop laparoscopic skill. Recently, improved operative performance from practice on a video trainer was reported. The purpose of this study was three fold: (a) to compare psychomotor skill improvement after training on a virtual reality (VR) system with that after training on a video-trainer, (VT) (b) to evaluate whether skills learned on the one training system are transferable to the other, and (c) to evaluate whether VR or VT training improves operative performance. For the study, 50 junior surgery residents completed baseline skill testing on both the VR and VT systems. These subjects then were randomized to either a VR or VT structured training group. After practice, the subjects were tested again on their VR and VT skills. To assess the effect of practice on operative performance, all second-year residents (n = 19) were evaluated on their operative performance during a laparoscopic cholecystectomy before and after skill training. Data are expressed as percentage of improvement in mean score/time. Analysis was performed by Student's paired t-test. The VR training group showed improvement of 54% on the VR posttest, as compared with 55% improvement by the VT group. The VR training group improved more on the VT posttest tasks (36%) than the VT training group improved on the VR posttest tasks (17%) (p <0.05). Operative performance improved only in the VR training group (p <0.05). Psychomotor skills improve after training on both VR and VT, and skills may be transferable. Furthermore, training on a minimally invasive surgery trainer, virtual reality system may improve operative performance during laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

Animals↗

Utility of chest computed tomography for staging in patients with T1 extremity soft tissue sarcomas.

BACKGROUND: National Cancer Center Network (NCCN) and Society of Surgical Oncology (SSO) practice guidelines recommend chest computed tomography (CT) as part of the staging evaluation of patients with extremity soft tissue sarcoma (STS). In the current study, the authors evaluated the use and yield of chest roentgenography (CXR) and selective chest CT to screen for pulmonary metastases in patients with T1 STS. METHODS: The utility of these staging studies was evaluated retrospectively in a cohort of 125 consecutive patients who presented to a tertiary care cancer center with T1 primary (nonrecurrent) extremity STS. Two diagnostic strategies (CXR alone vs. CXR plus chest CT) were evaluated using an incremental cost-effectiveness ratio. RESULTS: The majority of tumors (70%) were high grade. The median sarcoma size was 3.0 cm; 64 of the tumors (51%) were located deep to the investing fascia of the extremity. All patients underwent staging CXR; 1 CXR (< 1%) was suspicious for metastatic disease. Fifty-one patients (41%) also underwent chest CT; 1 chest CT, performed in the patient with a suspicious CXR, revealed metastatic disease. With a median follow-up of 76 months, 19 patients (15%) developed metachronous pulmonary metastases. The relatively low yield resulted in an incremental cost-effectiveness ratio of $59,772 per case of synchronous pulmonary metastasis detected by CXR plus chest CT. CONCLUSIONS: Less than 1% of patients with T1 primary extremity STS were found to have pulmonary metastases that were detectable using a staging algorithm that employs routine CXR with the selective use of chest CT. The findings of the current study do not support current NCCN or SSO practice guidelines for patients with high-grade T1 STS.

Adolescent↗

Accuracy and effectiveness of laparoscopic vs open hepatic radiofrequency ablation.

BACKGROUND: The purpose of this study was to compare the accuracy (in terms of ultrasound-guided probe placement) and the effectiveness (in terms of pathologic tumor-free margin) of laparoscopic vs open radiofrequency (RF) ablation. METHODS: Using a previously validated tissue-mimic model, 1-cm simulated hepatic tumors were ablated in 10 pigs randomized to open or laparoscopic techniques. Energy was applied until tissue temperature reached 100 degrees C (warm-up) and thereafter for 8 min. A pathologist blinded to technique examined all specimens immediately after treatment. Analysis was by Fisher's exact test and the Mann-Whitney U test; p < 0.05 was considered significant. RESULTS: Off-center distance (3.5 +/- 1.6 vs 4.2 +/- 1.4 mm), size (24.7 +/- 3.1 vs 25.6 +/- 3.8 mm), symmetry (40% vs 73%), margin positivity (33% vs 9%), and margin distance (1.1 +/- 1.2 vs 2.2 +/- 1.6 mm) were not significantly different between laparoscopic (n = 15) and open (n = 11) ablations, respectively. The proportion of round/ovoid lesions (20% vs 64%) was lower (p = 0.043), and warm-up time (20.2 +/- 14.0 vs 10.7 +/- 7.5) was longer (p = 0.049) for the laparoscopic than for the open groups, respectively. CONCLUSION: Accurate probe placement can be achieved using laparoscopic and open RF ablation techniques. The physiologic effects of laparoscopy may alter ablation shape and warm-up time. Additional studies are needed to establish effective ways of achieving complete tumor destruction.

Animals↗

[Ca(2+)](i) signaling in renal arterial smooth muscle cells of pregnant rat is enhanced during inhibition of NOS.

Vascular resistance and arterial pressure are reduced during normal pregnancy, but dangerously elevated during pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and changes in nitric oxide (NO) synthesis have been hypothesized as one potential cause. In support of this hypothesis, chronic inhibition of NO synthesis in pregnant rats has been shown to cause significant increases in renal vascular resistance and hypertension; however, the cellular mechanisms involved are unclear. We tested the hypothesis that the pregnancy-associated changes in renal vascular resistance reflect changes in contractility and intracellular Ca(2+) concentration ([Ca(2+)](i)) of renal arterial smooth muscle. Smooth muscle cells were isolated from renal interlobular arteries of virgin and pregnant Sprague-Dawley rats untreated or treated with the NO synthase inhibitor nitro-L-arginine methyl ester (L-NAME; 4 mg. kg(-1). day(-1) for 5 days), then loaded with fura 2. In cells of virgin rats incubated in Hanks' solution (1 mM Ca(2+)), the basal [Ca(2+)](i) was 86 +/- 6 nM. Phenylephrine (Phe, 10(-5) M) caused a transient increase in [Ca(2+)](i) to 417 +/- 11 nM and maintained an increase to 183 +/- 8 nM and 32 +/- 3% cell contraction. Membrane depolarization by 51 mM KCl, which stimulates Ca(2+) entry from the extracellular space, caused maintained increase in [Ca(2+)](i) to 292 +/- 12 nM and 31 +/- 2% contraction. The maintained Phe- and KCl-induced [Ca(2+)](i) and contractions were reduced in pregnant rats but significantly enhanced in pregnant rats treated with L-NAME. Phe- and KCl-induced contraction and [Ca(2+)](i) were not significantly different between untreated and L-NAME-treated virgin rats or between untreated and L-NAME + L-arginine treated pregnant rats. In Ca(2+)-free Hanks', application of Phe or caffeine (10 mM), to stimulate Ca(2+) release from the intracellular stores, caused a transient increase in [Ca(2+)](i) and a small cell contraction that were not significantly different among the different groups. Thus renal interlobular smooth muscle of normal pregnant rats exhibits reduction in [Ca(2+)](i) signaling that involves Ca(2+) entry from the extracellular space but not Ca(2+) release from the intracellular stores. The reduced renal smooth muscle cell contraction and [Ca(2+)](i) in pregnant rats may explain the decreased renal vascular resistance associated with normal pregnancy, whereas the enhanced cell contraction and [Ca(2+)](i) during inhibition of NO synthesis in pregnant rats may, in part, explain the increased renal vascular resistance associated with PIH.

Animals↗

Endothelin-1 enhances eicosanoids-induced coronary smooth muscle contraction by activating specific protein kinase C isoforms.

Endothelin-1 (ET-1), a potent vasoconstrictor, has been implicated in the pathogenesis of coronary vasospasm by enhancing coronary vasoconstriction to vasoactive eicosanoids; however, the cellular mechanisms involved are unclear. We investigated whether physiological concentrations of ET-1 enhance coronary smooth muscle contraction to vasoactive eicosanoids by activating specific protein kinase C (PKC) isoforms. Cell contraction was measured in single smooth muscle cells isolated from porcine coronary arteries, intracellular free Ca(2+) ([Ca(2+)](i)) was measured in fura-2-loaded cells, and the cytosolic and particulate fractions were examined for PKC activity and reactivity with isoform-specific anti-PKC antibodies using Western blots. In Hanks' solution (1 mmol/L Ca(2+)), ET-1 (10 pmol/L) did not increase basal [Ca(2+)](i) (81+/-2 nmol/L), but it did cause cell contraction (9%) that was inhibited by GF109203X (10(-6) mol/L), an inhibitor of Ca(2+)-dependent and Ca(2+)-indpendent PKC isoforms. The vasoactive eicosanoid prostaglandin F(2alpha) (PGF(2alpha), 10(-7) mol/L) caused increases in cell contraction (11%) and [Ca(2+)](i) (108+/-7 nmol/L) that were inhibited by the Ca(2+) channel blocker diltiazem (10(-6) mol/L). Pretreatment with ET-1 (10 pmol/L) for 10 minutes enhanced cell contraction to PGF(2alpha) (35%) with no additional increase in [Ca(2+)](i) (112+/-8 nmol/L). Direct activation of PKC by phorbol 12,13-dibutyrate (PDBu, 10(-7) mol/L) caused cell contraction (10%) and enhanced PGF(2alpha) contraction (33%) with no additional increase in [Ca(2+)](i) (115+/-7 nmol/L). The ET-1-induced enhancement of PGF(2alpha) contraction was inhibited by Gö6976 (10(-6) mol/L), an inhibitor of Ca(2+)-dependent PKC isoforms. Both ET-1 and PDBu caused an increase in PKC activity in the particulate fraction and a decrease in the cytosolic fraction and increased the particulate/cytosolic PKC activity ratio. Western blots revealed the Ca(2+)-dependent alpha-PKC and the Ca(2+)-independent delta-, epsilon-, and zeta-PKC isoforms. In resting tissues, alpha- and epsilon-PKC were mainly cytosolic, delta-PKC was mainly in the particulate fraction, and zeta-PKC was equally distributed in the cytosolic and particulate fraction. ET-1 (10 pmol/L) alone or PDBu (10(-7) mol/L) alone caused translocation of epsilon-PKC from the cytosolic to the particulate fraction, localized delta-PKC more in the particulate fraction, but did not change the distribution of zeta-PKC. PGF(2alpha) (10(-7) mol/L) alone did not change PKC activity. In tissues pretreated with ET-1 or PDBu, PGF(2alpha) caused additional increases in alpha-PKC activity. Thus, the enhancement of PGF(2alpha)-induced coronary smooth muscle contraction by physiological concentrations of ET-1 involves activation and translocation of alpha-PKC in addition to delta- and epsilon-PKC isoforms, and this may represent one possible cellular mechanism by which ET-1 could enhance coronary vasoconstriction to vasoactive eicosanoids in coronary vasospasm.

Animals↗

Sentinel lymph node biopsy is accurate after neoadjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer.

PURPOSE: Sentinel lymph node (SLN) biopsy has proved to be an accurate method for detecting nodal micrometastases in previously untreated patients with early-stage breast cancer. We investigated the accuracy of this technique for patients with more advanced breast cancer after neoadjuvant chemotherapy. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Patients with stage II or III breast cancer who had undergone doxorubicin-based neoadjuvant chemotherapy before breast surgery were eligible. Intraoperative lymphatic mapping was performed with peritumoral injections of blue dye alone or in combination with technetium-labeled sulfur colloid. All patients were offered axillary lymph node dissection. Negative sentinel and axillary nodes were subjected to additional processing with serial step sectioning and immunohistochemical staining with an anticytokeratin antibody to detect micrometastases. RESULTS: Fifty-one patients underwent SLN biopsy after neoadjuvant chemotherapy from 1994 to 1999. The SLN identification rate improved from 64.7% to 94.1%. Twenty-two (51.2%) of the 43 successfully mapped patients had positive SLNs, and in 10 of those 22 patients (45.5%), the SLN was the only positive node. Three patients had false-negative SLN biopsy; that is, the sentinel node was negative, but at least one nonsentinel node contained metastases. Additional processing revealed occult micrometastases in four patients (three in sentinel nodes and one in a nonsentinel node). CONCLUSION: SLN biopsy is accurate after neoadjuvant chemotherapy. The SLN identification improved with experience. False-negative findings occurred at a low rate throughout the series. This technique is a potential way to guide the axillary treatment of patients who are clinically node negative after neoadjuvant chemotherapy.

Adult↗

Clinical description and review of migraine aura without headache.

BACKGROUND: Migraine aura without headache (MAWOH) is a type of migraine that seems to be reported more frequently in ophthalmic than neurologic or general medical practice. The clinical characteristics of this condition are described relative to its relationship with other forms of migraine, patient age, gender distribution, laterality, personal or family history, visual aura, and precipitating factors. As a result of its prevalence, it is a condition with which every optometrist and ophthalmologist should be familiar. Since MAWOH is a common cause of photopsia and transient vision loss, it is also important to consider it in the differential diagnosis of these conditions-especially in older patients. METHODS: The clinical investigations of MAWOH by prospective and retrospective case series are reviewed. This review includes an analysis by study of the number of patients, migraine history, and type of visual symptom. Comparison of clinical characteristics is used to distinguish MAWOH from other types of migraine. CONCLUSION: Migraine aura without headache is a type of migraine that is reported frequently in ophthalmic practice. Because it is related to photopsia and/or transient vision loss, specific clinical procedures should be performed to assist in the differential diagnosis of these conditions.

Diagnosis, Differential↗

Migraine aura without headache: prevalence and risk factors in a primary eye care population.

BACKGROUND: Although migraine headache has received substantial attention in the scientific literature, migraine aura without headache (MAWOH) has not been investigated frequently. A general population survey study estimated the lifetime prevalence of MAWOH to be 1% in males and 3% in females. Anecdotal evidence has suggested that MAWOH is encountered by primary eye care practitioners more frequently than these rates suggest. This study is the first investigation of this condition in a primary eye care population. METHODS: A written questionnaire was used to survey 1,000 patients, ages 18 years and older, presenting for a comprehensive eye examination in the Primary Care Optometry Service of the School of Optometry, University of Alabama at Birmingham. Cases were identified by the presence of visual sensations consistent with MAWOH. RESULTS: Of the primary eye care population surveyed, 6.5% reported experiencing visual sensations consistent with MAWOH. The prevalence in males was 2.9% and in females, 8.6%. A multivariate analysis revealed that female gender (odds ratio [OR] = 2.3), history of migraine headaches (OR = 3.2), and history of childhood motion sickness (OR = 2.7) were significantly related to MAWOH. CONCLUSIONS: The prevalence of MAWOH is higher in an adult primary eye care population than previously reported in a general population study.

Alabama↗

Screening for MEN1 mutations in patients with atypical endocrine neoplasia.

BACKGROUND: Most patients from typical multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) kindreds harbor mutations in the MEN-1 gene, MEN1. We hypothesized that some patients with atypical endocrine neoplasia would also have mutations in MEN1. METHODS: DNA sequencing analysis of mutations in the coding region of MEN1 was performed with genomic DNA obtained from peripheral blood lymphocytes in a total of 21 patients who had: typical MEN1 (n = 8), clinical features suggestive of MEN1 but without a family history of endocrinopathy (n = 7), and atypical endocrine neoplasia and a family history of endocrinopathy suggestive of MEN1 (n = 6). RESULTS: All 8 patients with typical MEN1 had mutations in MEN1. None of the 7 patients with features of MEN1, but without a family history of endocrinopathy, had a MEN1 mutation. In contrast, 4 of 6 patients with atypical endocrine neoplasia that included components of MEN1 and a family history of endocrinopathy had mutations in MEN1, including 2 patients with pheochromocytoma. CONCLUSIONS: Genomic mutations in MEN1 may frequently be identified in patients with atypical endocrine neoplasia, especially in the setting of a family history of endocrinopathy. Atypical presentations of MEN1 may include pheochromocytoma.

Adrenal Gland Neoplasms↗

Surgical strategy for the treatment of medullary thyroid carcinoma.

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate surgical complications, patterns of lymph node metastases, and calcitonin response to compartment-oriented lymphadenectomy in patients with primary or recurrent medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC). SUMMARY BACKGROUND DATA: The majority of patients with invasive MTC have metastasis to regional lymph nodes at the time of diagnosis, as evidenced by the frequent finding of persistently elevated calcitonin levels after thyroidectomy and the high rates of recurrence in the cervical lymph nodes reported in retrospective studies. These data have provided the rationale for surgeons to perform a more extensive lymphadenectomy at the time of initial thyroidectomy and to consider reoperative cervical lymphadenectomy in patients with persistently elevated calcitonin levels after thyroidectomy. METHODS: Forty patients underwent surgery for MTC from 1991 to 1997 (23 sporadic cases, 17 familial cases). Patients were divided into three groups based on whether they had undergone previous thyroidectomy and on the results of standardized staging studies performed after referral to the authors' institution. Group 1 (11 patients) had received no previous surgery; group 2 (13) underwent thyroidectomy before referral and had an elevated calcitonin level without radiologic evidence of local regional or distant metastases; and group 3 (16) underwent thyroidectomy before referral and had an elevated calcitonin level with radiologic evidence of local-regional recurrence. The central neck compartment was dissected in all patients; preoperative staging and the extent of previous surgery dictated the need for lateral (modified radical) neck dissection. After primary or reoperative surgery, calcitonin levels were assessed. RESULTS: All patients had major reductions in postoperative calcitonin levels. Seven (29%) of 24 patients in groups 1 and 2 achieved normal calcitonin values compared with only 1 (6%) of 16 in group 3. Postoperative complications included seven cases (17%) of permanent hypoparathyroidism; five (71%) of these occurred in group 3. There were no iatrogenic recurrent laryngeal nerve injuries; one patient required recurrent nerve resection to achieve complete tumor extirpation. At a median follow up of 35 months, local recurrence was documented in 5 (13%) of 40 patients. CONCLUSIONS: Compartment-oriented lymphadenectomy performed early in the course of MTC is safe and may return calcitonin levels to normal in up to 25% of carefully selected patients. However, reoperation for bulky cervical disease (group 3) rarely results in normal calcitonin levels and is associated with a high incidence of permanent hypoparathyroidism.

Adolescent↗

Long-term outcome of patients with American Joint Committee on Cancer stage IIB extremity soft tissue sarcomas.

PURPOSE: It has been suggested that patients with small (< 5 cm), high-grade extremity soft tissue sarcomas (STS) have an excellent overall prognosis and, consequently, may not require adjuvant therapies. PATIENTS AND METHODS: A comprehensive review of all patients with extremity STS treated at a tertiary care cancer hospital over a 9-year period (January 1984 to December 1992) was performed. Prognostic factors, treatment data, and long-term outcome were evaluated in the subset of 111 patients with American Joint Committee on Cancer stage IIB (G3/4, T1a/b) disease. RESULTS: The median tumor size was 3.0 cm (range, 0.6 to 4.9 cm), and 55 tumors (50%) were deep in location. All patients underwent surgical resection; 68 (61%) received pre- or postoperative radiotherapy, and 32 (29%) received doxorubicin-based chemotherapy. The median follow-up was 76 months. Forty patients (36%) experienced 59 recurrences. First recurrences occurred at local, regional, and distant sites in 21, five, and 14 patients, respectively. The 5-year actuarial local recurrence-free, distant recurrence-free, disease-free, and overall survival rates were 82%, 83%, 68%, and 83%, respectively. The presence of a microscopically positive surgical margin was an independent adverse prognostic factor for both local recurrence (relative risk [RR] = 3.75; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.25 to 11.25; P =.02) and disease-free survival (RR = 2.57; 95% CI, 1.33 to 4.98; P =.005). CONCLUSION: Event-free outcome for this subset of patients with high-grade STS does not seem as favorable as previously reported by other investigators. Patients who undergo maximal surgical resection with microscopically positive margins represent a subset of T1 STS patients who warrant consideration for adjuvant therapies.

Adolescent↗

Overexpression of the tumor suppressor gene Smad4/DPC4 induces p21waf1 expression and growth inhibition in human carcinoma cells.

The Smad4/DPC4 protein functions as a key transcription factor in transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta) signaling pathways. However, the downstream target genes regulated by Smad4/DPC4 have not been identified until now. We previously demonstrated that the loss of TGF-beta-induced p21waf1 expression and growth inhibition correlates with inactivation of the Smad4/DPC4 gene. Now we show that transient overexpression of Smad4/DPC4 can induce p21waf1 expression, specific Smad4 DNA binding activity, SBE4-luc reporter gene activity, and subsequent growth inhibition in Smad4/DPC4-null cells and other carcinoma cells in the presence or absence of TGF-beta. Taken together, these data show that p21waf1 is one of the Smad4/DPC4-regulated downstream target genes and suggest that overexpression of the Smad4/DPC4 gene can bypass TGF-beta receptor activation and reestablish one of the key regulatory controls of cell proliferation.

Carcinoma↗

Comparative effects of nefazodone and fluoxetine on sleep in outpatients with major depressive disorder.

BACKGROUND: Sleep disturbances are common in major depressive disorder. In previous open-label trials, nefazodone improved sleep continuity and increased rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, while not affecting stage 3/4 sleep or REM latency: in contrast, fluoxetine suppressed REM sleep. This study compared the objective and subjective effects of nefazodone and fluoxetine on sleep. METHODS: This paper reports combined results of three identical, multisite, randomized, double-blind, 8-week, acute-phase trials comparing nefazodone (n = 64) with fluoxetine (n = 61) in outpatients with nonpsychotic major depressive disorder and insomnia. Sleep electroencephalographic (EEG) recordings were gathered at baseline and weeks 2, 4, and 8. Clinical ratings were obtained at weeks 1-4, 6, and 8. RESULTS: Nefazodone and fluoxetine were equally effective in reducing depressive symptoms; however, nefazodone differentially and progressively increased (while fluoxetine reduced) sleep efficiency and reduced (while fluoxetine increased) the number of awakenings in a linear fashion over the 8-week trial. Fluoxetine, but not nefazodone, prolonged REM latency and suppressed REM sleep. Nefazodone significantly increased total REM sleep time. Clinical evaluations of sleep quality were significantly improved with nefazodone compared with fluoxetine. CONCLUSIONS: Nefazodone and fluoxetine were equally effective antidepressants. Nefazodone was associated with normal objective, and clinician- and patient-rated assessments of sleep when compared with fluoxetine. These differential sleep EEG effects are consistent with the notion that nefazodone and fluoxetine may have somewhat different modes and spectra of action.

Adult↗

The effect of a medication alarm device on patient compliance with topical pilocarpine.

BACKGROUND: This study was performed to investigate the use of an electronic medication alarm device (Prescript TimeCap) to enhance compliance in glaucoma patients taking pilocarpine. METHODS: Thirteen subjects were selected who had been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma and were receiving 1 drop of pilocarpine solution 4 times a day in both eyes. For each subject, the study was divided into 2 30-day phases, one with the medication alarm device and the other without. Thus, each subject served as his or her own control. Compliance was measured based on the amount of pilocarpine used and by patient questionnaire. In addition, the subjects completed a post-study questionnaire regarding the ease of use of the TimeCap and whether it helped them remember to take their medication. RESULTS: When subjects used the TimeCap, they administered an average of 2.867 g (P < 0.0001) more pilocarpine over the 30 days than during the period without it. Subjects also estimated a significant difference in compliance level, 95.8 percent with the alarm device versus 83.1 percent without it (p < 0.01). All subjects reported no difficulty using the TimeCap, and all reported that it helped them remember to take their medication. CONCLUSIONS: These results are highly suggestive that the TimeCap is an effective compliance aid for glaucoma patients on pilocarpine.

Administration, Topical↗