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K Hickey

Publications and source records attributed to K Hickey.

At least 19 recordsLinked to original sources
PubMed2005

Introducing laparoscopic management of ectopic pregnancy to a busy gynaecology unit--is it worthwhile?

A review was carried out on 26 consecutive women undergoing surgery for ectopic pregnancy in the Limerick Regional Hospital, Ireland from April 2000 to April 2002. 13 were managed laparoscopically and 13 had laparotomy. There were no significant differences in age, parity or gestational age. 3 patients had previous ectopic pregnancy. 12/13 from the laparotomy group had a diagnostic laparoscopy prior to laparotomy. Anaesthetic time differed by 21.2 minutes with laparotomy being done faster than the laparoscopy group while operative time was 7.3 minutes longer in the laparoscopic group. The laparoscopic approach was associated with lower intraoperative blood loss (<50 ml vs 413.1 ml), less post operative analgesia requirement, shorter hospital stay (2.4 days vs 4.5 days), faster return to work (2 weeks vs 4 weeks) and less subsequent wound infection. Operative laparoscopy also has the advantage of being a diagnostic as well as a therapeutic tool in one procedure.

Adult↗
PubMed2004

Does surgical staging of clinical Stage I endometrial carcinoma significantly alter adjuvant management?

Full surgical staging for endometrial cancer has been advocated since 1988, when FIGO redefined stage of disease on the basis of surgico-pathological criteria. However, such extensive surgery, performed on often elderly women, must counterbalance any increased morbidity against the potential gains of altered subsequent management. We report a 2-year review of 22 patients undergoing full surgical staging for Stage I endometrial cancer. Nine women (41%) had altered adjuvant treatment as a result. In seven patients, decisions regarding postoperative radiotherapy treatment were influenced and two women had an unsuspected ovarian tumour. Postoperative complications were minor, apart from one wound dehiscence. There were no perioperative deaths and no blood transfusions. Surgical staging was found to be a safe intervention with a significant impact on adjuvant management.

Adenocarcinoma↗
PubMed2001

Antiarrhythmic drug therapy in the Multicenter UnSustained Tachycardia Trial (MUSTT): drug testing and as-treated analysis.

OBJECTIVES: Using data from the Multicenter UnSustained Tachycardia Trial (MUSTT), we examined the factors used to select antiarrhythmic drug therapy and their impact on outcomes. BACKGROUND: The MUSTT examined the use of programmed ventricular stimulation (PVS) to guide antiarrhythmic therapy in patients with coronary arteriosclerosis, left ventricular dysfunction and asymptomatic, unsustained ventricular tachycardia (VT). Trial outcomes may reflect factors used to select antiarrhythmic drug therapy. METHODS: We compared subgroups of patients with inducible sustained VT randomized to PVS-guided antiarrhythmic therapy (n = 351), in particular those receiving PVS-guided antiarrhythmic drug therapy (n = 142) versus no antiarrhythmic therapy (controls, n = 353). RESULTS: "Effective" antiarrhythmic drug therapy (i.e., the term "effective" was used to denote therapy that resulted in noninducible VT or hemodynamically stable induced VT) was found for 142 of the 351 patients (43%), most often at the first or second PVS session (125/142, 88%). Mortality among the 142 patients did not differ from that among control patients. Of these 142 patients, the PVS end point was noninducibility in 91 patients and stable VT in 51 patients. Mortality did not differ between these two groups either, but arrhythmia was numerically more frequent in the PVS-induced stable VT group. Mortality was greatest in the few patients receiving propafenone (unadjusted p = 0.07, adjusted p = 0.14 vs. controls), but mortality with all agents did not differ from that of controls, even after adjustment. CONCLUSIONS: Even when presenting the results as favorably as possible, we found no benefit with PVS-guided drug therapy in patients with clinical unsustained VT who had inducible sustained VT. These findings are unaltered by using different end points for PVS or considering the response to individual drugs.

Aged↗
PubMed2001

Baseline factors predicting early resumption of driving after life-threatening arrhythmias in the Antiarrhythmics Versus Implantable Defibrillators (AVID) Trial.

BACKGROUND: In the Antiarrhythmics Versus Implantable Defibrillators (AVID) Trial, patients with ventricular fibrillation or hemodynamically unstable ventricular tachycardia were randomly assigned to receive either an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) or antiarrhythmic drug therapy. As part of the trial, patients were asked to participate in a prospective driving survey. The purpose of the survey was to determine what baseline factors and patient characteristics specifically predicted resumption of driving earlier than advised by current guidelines. METHODS: Patients were surveyed anonymously as to their driving habits in the initial period after random assignment and every 6 months thereafter. AVID study coordinators were independently asked to assess their patients' driving status as well. The relation between baseline factors and time to resumption of driving was explored by means of Kaplan-Meier estimates for univariate analyses and the stepwise Cox proportional hazards regression model for multivariate analyses. RESULTS: There were 802 patients who were eligible for assessment of driving status. The majority of patients (58%) resumed driving an automobile within 6 months of their index arrhythmia regardless of whether they received drug therapy or an ICD. By multivariate analysis, patients who were younger than 65 years of age, male, and college educated were more likely to drive early, as were patients whose index arrhythmia was ventricular tachycardia. CONCLUSIONS: Younger, college-educated men and those whose index arrhythmia is ventricular tachycardia are most likely to resume driving <6 months after the initiation of therapy for a potentially life-threatening ventricular arrhythmia. Patients with an ICD did not appear to resume driving later than those who were discharged on antiarrhythmic drugs alone.

Aged↗
PubMed1999

Studies of penetrance and anticipation in five autosomal-dominant restless legs syndrome pedigrees.

Restless legs syndrome (RLS) can occur with an autosomal-dominant mode of inheritance. To determine if there are distinguishing features of RLS pedigrees which might clarify molecular mechanisms of pathogenesis, five pedigrees with 81 affected members were analyzed for age of onset, sex ratio, and transmission pattern. One-factor analysis of variance of ages of onset between generations was carried out, and segregation ratios were calculated for each generation. These kindreds showed an autosomal-dominant mode of inheritance and a male:female ratio of 1:1.4 (p = 0.15). One of the five analyzed pedigrees shows some evidence of reduced penetrance. In two of the five analyzed pedigrees, there is statistical support for anticipation (p<0.05). These variations in penetrance and anticipation suggest possible genetic heterogeneity.

Adolescent↗
PubMed1996

Skull fracture caused by vacuum extraction.

BACKGROUND: The vacuum extractor is being increasingly advocated as the instrument of first choice for assisted vaginal delivery. It is widely believed that the vacuum cup will dislodge before causing serious fetal trauma. CASE: Rotational delivery of a term infant was effected using a vacuum extractor. A 6-cm Malmström metal cup with a paramedian application was in place for 12 minutes. The vacuum pressure developed was 0.8 kg/cm2. Four traction efforts with contractions were required to deliver the fetal head. A neonatal skull x-ray the following day showed a comminuted parietal bone fracture at the vacuum cup application site. Management was conservative, and the infant's neurologic behavior remained normal. CONCLUSION: The vacuum extractor exerts considerable traction force. Fetal skull fracture can result, and its true incidence may be higher than expected, considering that few neonates with normal neurologic behavior undergo skull x-ray.

Adult↗
PubMed1996

Autosomal-dominant iridogoniodysgenesis and Axenfeld-Rieger syndrome are genetically distinct.

PURPOSE: To determine whether there is a locus for iridogoniodysgenesis (IGD)/ familial iris hypoplasia in the region of the known Axenfeld-Rieger syndrome (ARS) locus at 4q25 and to determine the ocular phenotype within the autosomal-dominant iris hypoplasia group of disorders. METHODS: Clinical examinations were performed on 27 members, with 11 affected from one family in which the IGD occurred in association with the nonocular features of ARS, and on 70 members with 30 affected from a second IGD family with ocular features only. Family members were genotyped for markers within the 4q25 region known to contain a locus for ARS. LOD scores were calculated with the MLINK option of the LINKAGE program. RESULTS: The iris hypoplasia in each IGD family was similar. In the IGD family with only ocular features (IGD anomaly), however, a majority of those affected had a goniodysgenesis with excess tissue in the angle and anomalous angle vascularity. These findings were absent in the IGD family with syndromic features (IGD syndrome). Linkage to the 4q25 region was excluded in the IGD anomaly family, whereas the family with IGD syndrome was found to be completely linked to the 4q25 region (peak LOD score with D4S407 of 7.827 at theta = 0.00). CONCLUSIONS: The authors' results suggest that mutations at the 4q25 locus can result in variable ocular features that also occur in combination with nonocular (dental and jaw) anomalies. Mutation of a separate locus must underlie IGD with ocular features only. A re-evaluation of the relation between the various forms of autosomal-dominant iris hypoplasia, therefore, may be warranted.

Abnormalities, Multiple↗
PubMed1996

A questionnaire study of 138 patients with restless legs syndrome: the 'Night-Walkers' survey.

After verifying the diagnosis of restless legs syndrome (RLS) in 105 patients who are part of a nationwide support group, we undertook a telephone survey of their symptomatology. We then compared the answers with those of 33 of our own RLS patients who had undergone a neurologic examination and had a periodic limb movement in sleep (PLMS) index of > 5 (number per hours of sleep). Although RLS has generally been considered to be a condition of middle to older age, the results for the support group, and for our patients, are similar in that more than a third of the patients in each group experienced their first symptoms before the age of 10. Initial lack of diagnosis or misdiagnosis by a physician were common and the symptoms were commonly thought to be psychogenic whatever the age of onset. In some cases, young age-onset RLS was severe from the start. For younger age-onset patients whose symptoms were severe enough to seek immediate medical attention, confounding or misdiagnosis included "growing pains" and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. However, medical attention was generally not sought until the fourth decade. Most respondents stated that this was because their symptoms were mild at onset and then progressed. In the older age-onset patients, misdiagnoses also included skin irritation, arthritis, and malingering. A total remission of symptoms of a month or more was present in at least 15% of the individuals in all groups surveyed. More than 50% of the respondents know of one or more first-degree relatives affected by RLS. Five of our 33 patients had RLS initially triggered either by diabetic peripheral neuropathy or lumbosacral radiculopathy.

Adult↗
PubMed1994

Expression of epidermal growth factor receptor and proliferating cell nuclear antigen predicts response of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma to chemoradiotherapy.

BACKGROUND: Multimodality therapy with chemotherapy and radiotherapy followed by surgery may improve survival in patients with esophageal squamous cell carcinoma compared with each of the individual treatment options. Histologic assessment of resected tumors after chemoradiotherapy shows that some patients have a complete response with no residual tumor, whereas other patients derive no benefit. The ability to predict response to chemoradiotherapy would allow treatment to be planned accordingly. METHODS: Expression of the tumor growth and proliferation proteins epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA) was determined using immunohistochemical staining of pretreatment endoscopic biopsies from patients with esophageal squamous cell carcinoma who were randomized to chemoradiotherapy before surgery. Response to chemoradiotherapy was assessed by histologic examination of the resected specimens. Response to chemoradiotherapy and survival were correlated with EGFR and PCNA expression individually and with both markers combined as EGFR/PCNA: RESULTS: Of 14 patients available for study, 6 had a complete histologic response (CR) to chemoradiotherapy with no residual tumor in the resected specimen, 3 had a partial response (PR) to chemoradiotherapy, and the remaining 5 had minimal response (MR). Of the nine patients with a CR or PR, tumors of eight patients were negative for one or both markers. Of the five patients with an MR, four tumors were positive for both EGFR and PCNA (P < 0.05, Fisher's exact test). Comparison of survival from the date of randomization shows that patients with tumors negative for one or both markers had a significant survival advantage (P = 0.0003, log-rank test). CONCLUSIONS: Evaluation of PCNA and EGFR status of pretreatment biopsies may identify a group of patients likely to derive the greatest benefit from chemoradiotherapy before surgery in terms of histologic response and long term survival.

Adult↗
PubMed1994

Innervation of the rat external auditory meatus: a retrograde tracing study.

The innervation of the rat external auditory meatus has contributions from several nerves. Fluoro-gold, a retrograde neuronal tracer, was used to determine the relative contributions from neurons in cranial and spinal ganglia, and to distinguish any difference in the sensory and motor innervation between the outer cartilaginous and inner bony portions. The following ganglia were examined: the trigeminal, geniculate, glossopharyngeal, vagal, superior cervical, and dorsal root (C2-C4) ganglia. All selected ganglia demonstrated innervation of the external ear canal, particularly the trigeminal, glossopharyngeal, facial, and vagal ganglia. The geniculate and glossopharyngeal ganglia contributed more innervation to the inner osseous portion than to the outer cartilaginous portion of the external ear canal, and the vagal ganglion contributed relatively equally.

Animals↗