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Biomedical subjects

P M Hurley

Publications and source records attributed to P M Hurley.

At least 19 recordsLinked to original sources

Management of shotgun injuries to the pelvis and lower genitourinary system.

OBJECTIVES: Shotgun injuries are rare, with the extent of injury best determined at time of surgical exploration. There are no defined workup or management guidelines for patients with shotgun injuries to the genitourinary system. Injuries are usually treated on an individual basis. This study was conducted to determine the management and extent of genitourinary tract injuries in 10 patients with shotgun injuries to the pelvis during a 6-year interval. METHODS: Between September 1990 and December 1996, 140 patients were treated for firearm injuries to the lower genitourinary tract, of which 10 were secondary to shotgun blasts. We performed a retrospective hospital and clinic chart review and telephone interview to assess organs injured, initial treatment, follow-up surgeries, mortality, and erectile function. RESULTS: Mean patient age was 20 years at the time of the injury. The mean follow-up was 4 years (range 1 to 7). Two patients died, both with major vascular injuries, one in the operating room and the other 1 week later from sepsis. Eight patients underwent radiographic examinations (1 intravenous urogram and 7 urethrocystograms). The bladder was injured in 5 patients, 2 with concomitant complete posterior urethral transection. Of the 5 patients without bladder injury, one had an incomplete penile urethral injury and one had a complete bulbar urethral transection. The initial management consisted of repairing nongenitourinary injuries in 8 cases (80%), most commonly involving injuries to the rectum and small bowel. All patients were treated operatively, including 8 who required laparotomy and 4 who required suprapubic cystotomy. A total of four urethral injuries were noted. Subsequent reconstructive surgeries included two urethroplasties and one permanent supravesical diversion for 3 patients with extensive urethral loss. Erectile dysfunction was present in 3 of 6 patients available for telephone interview. CONCLUSIONS: Shotgun injuries involving the lower genitourinary tract are associated with significant soft tissue injury and morbidity. Death usually results from major associated vascular injuries. All hemodynamically stable patients should undergo retrograde urethrograms and cystograms to evaluate possible urethral and bladder injuries. Open primary repair should be attempted for distal urethral, testicular, and corporal injuries. Delayed repair with staged urethral reconstruction should be reserved for patients with extensive loss of urethral tissue. Impotence is common in patients with extensive perineal injuries.

Adolescent↗

Isochromosome 8q formation is associated with 8p loss of heterozygosity in a prostate cancer cell line.

BACKGROUND: In advanced prostate cancer, loss of chromosomal regions on 8p is frequently associated with gain of 8q. We studied the gross chromosomal abnormalities associated with 8p loss of heterozygosity (LOH) in the prostate tumor cell line 1542 CP3Tx. The cell line was previously established from a primary prostatic adenocarcinoma by immortalization with a recombinant retrovirus carrying the E6 and E7 genes of human papilloma virus type 16. Allelotyping studies demonstrated LOH at multiple markers on 8p. METHODS: To investigate the relationship of 8p LOH to gross chromosomal rearrangements, and to screen for other genetic abnormalities in 1542 CP3Tx, we used comparative genomic hybridization (CGH), conventional karyotyping, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), and allelotyping. RESULTS: CGH revealed loss of the entire 8p arm, associated with gain of the entire 8q arm. Other abnormalities included chromosome 4 loss and chromosome 11 gain. The karyotype showed an isochromosome (8q), monosomy 4, and trisomy 11. FISH and allelotyping confirmed and extended these results. CONCLUSIONS: These results demonstrate that i(8q) formation is a mechanism for associated 8p loss and 8q gain in prostate cancer. Furthermore, the small number of chromosomal abnormalities in this cell line indicates that immortalization of low-passage cultures with viral oncogenes provides a method for obtaining cell lines for studying genetic abnormalities in prostate cancer.

Alleles↗

Chromosomal analysis of renal angiomyolipoma by comparative genomic hybridization: evidence for clonal origin.

Angiomyolipoma has long been considered a hamartomatous polyclonal proliferation. However, recent molecular analyses have indicated that these tumors may be clonal neoplasms rather than polyclonal proliferations. We investigated chromosomal imbalances in angiomyolipoma by comparative genomic hybridization. DNA was extracted from archival paraffin-embedded and frozen tissues of 12 angiomyolipomas (10 usual variant, two epithelioid variant). The 10 angiomyolipomas of the usual variant included bilateral tumors from one tuberous sclerosis patient. Fluorescence ratio distributions from tumor hybridizations were compared with those from control hybridizations to detect changes in DNA copy number with high sensitivity and specificity. We identified 20 chromosomal imbalances in seven sporadic angiomyolipomas, including both tumors of the epithelioid variant. The remaining five tumors, including the two angiomyolipomas from a tuberous sclerosis patient, were devoid of chromosomal imbalances. Seventy-five percent of the imbalances were partial or whole chromosomal deletions involving disparate genomic regions, some of which have previously been associated with tumors of adipose tissue and smooth muscle tumors. Four angiomyolipomas of the usual variant showed 5q deletions with a common region of deletion spanning 5q33 to q34. In two tumors, deletion on 5q was the sole abnormality. One epithelioid angiomyolipoma showed 5q gain encompassing the same region in addition to other alterations. We concluded that (1) Chromosomal imbalances are common in renal angiomyolipomas; (2) Presence of clonal genomic alterations lends further support to the neoplastic pathogenesis of these tumors; (3) The 5q33-q34 region may contain a tumor suppressor gene significant in the histogenesis of some renal angiomyolipomas.

Adult↗

Ureterocele arising from a lower-pole moiety.

We report on an uncommon case of a ureterocele arising from the lower-pole ureter in a duplex system. To our knowledge, this represents the 3rd such case reported in the English literature. Ultrasonography and retrograde pyelogram established the diagnosis. The patient underwent left upper-pole nephroureterectomy with excision of the ureterocele and cross-trigonal ureteral reimplantation.

Child, Preschool↗

Treatment outcome after radical prostatectomy is not adversely affected by a pre-existing penile prosthesis.

OBJECTIVES: To report on the safety of radical retropubic prostatectomy (RRP) in patients with a penile prosthesis presenting with clinically localized prostate cancer. METHODS: From January 1990 to December 1997, 8 consecutive men with a penile prosthesis underwent RRP for clinically localized prostate cancer. Retrospective data regarding patient population, operating time, estimated blood loss, length of hospital stay, and clinical outcome were evaluated. RESULTS: Mean patient age was 65.4 years (range 57 to 70) at the time of RRP, with a mean preoperative serum prostate-specific antigen level of 11.5 ng/mL. Mean duration of RRP surgery was 183.9 minutes, and the mean estimated blood loss was 1281.8 mL. No complication requiring penile prosthesis removal occurred. In 1 case, the reservoir tubing was punctured during closure of the abdominal fascia wall. This was immediately recognized and fixed. All patients had a functioning penile prosthesis after RRP. CONCLUSIONS: RRP can be safely and expeditiously performed in patients with a pre-existing penile prosthesis. The risk of prosthesis malfunction after RRP is very low. Patients with a penile prosthesis and prostate cancer should not be denied the option of undergoing RRP.

Aged↗

Mode of carcinogenic action of pesticides inducing thyroid follicular cell tumors in rodents.

Of 240 pesticides screened for carcinogenicity by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Office of Pesticide Programs, at least 24 (10%) produce thyroid follicular cell tumors in rodents. Thirteen of the thyroid carcinogens also induce liver tumors, mainly in mice, and 9 chemicals produce tumors at other sites. Some mutagenic data are available on all 24 pesticides producing thyroid tumors. Mutagenicity does not seem to be a major determinant in thyroid carcinogenicity, except for possibly acetochlor; evidence is less convincing for ethylene thiourea and etridiazole. Studies on thyroid-pituitary functioning, including indications of thyroid cell growth and/or changes in thyroxine, triiodothyronine, or thyroid-stimulating hormone levels, are available on 19 pesticides. No such antithyroid information is available for etridiazole, N-octyl bicycloheptene dicarboximide, terbutryn, triadimefon, and trifluralin. Of the studied chemicals, only bromacil lacks antithyroid activity under study conditions. Intrathyroidal and extrathyroidal sites of action are found: amitrole, ethylene thiourea, and mancozeb are thyroid peroxidase inhibitors; and acetochlor, clofentezine, fenbuconazole, fipronil, pendimethalin, pentachloronitrobenzene, prodiamine, pyrimethanil, and thiazopyr seem to enhance the hepatic metabolism and excretion of thyroid hormone. Thus, with 12 pesticides that mode of action judgments can be made, 11 disrupt thyroid-pituitary homeostasis only; no chemical is mutagenic only; and acetochlor may have both antithyroid and some mutagenic activity. More information is needed to identify other potential antithyroid modes of thyroid carcinogenic action.

Adenocarcinoma, Follicular↗

Risk assessment of thyroid follicular cell tumors.

Thyroid follicular cell tumors arise in rodents from mutations, perturbations of thyroid and pituitary hormone status with increased stimulation of thyroid cell growth by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), or a combination of the two. The only known human thyroid carcinogen is ionizing radiation. It is not known for certain whether chemicals that affect thyroid cell growth lead to human thyroid cancer. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency applies the following science policy positions: 1) chemically induced rodent thyroid tumors are presumed to be relevant to humans; 2) when interspecies information is lacking, the default is to assume comparable carcinogenic sensitivity in rodents and humans; 3) adverse rodent noncancer thyroid effects due to chemically induced thyroid-pituitary disruption are presumed to be relevant to humans; 4) linear dose-response considerations are applied to thyroid cancer induced by chemical substances that either do not disrupt thyroid functioning or lack mode of action information; 5) nonlinear thyroid cancer dose-response considerations are applied to chemicals that reduce thyroid hormone levels, increase TSH and thyroid cell division, and are judged to lack mutagenic activity; and 6) nonlinear considerations may be applied in thyroid cancer dose-response assessments on a case-by-case basis for chemicals that disrupt thyroid-pituitary functioning and demonstrate some mutagenic activity. Required data for risk assessment purposes is mode of action information on mutagenicity, increases in follicular cell growth (cell size and number) and thyroid gland weight, thyroid-pituitary hormones, site of action, correlations between doses producing thyroid effects and cancer, and reversibility of effects when dosing ceases.

Adenocarcinoma, Follicular↗

A similar pattern of chromosomal alterations in prostate cancers from African-Americans and Caucasian Americans.

A combination of genetic and epigenetic factors may explain the disproportionate incidence and mortality of prostate cancer among African-American males (AAMs) as compared with Caucasian American males (CAMs). We wished to determine whether primary prostate cancers from AAMs and CAMs harbor different patterns or frequencies of chromosomal alterations. Comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) was performed on clinically localized, untreated primary prostate cancers from 16 AAMs and 16 CAMs. Detailed statistical analysis was used to delineate gains and deletions with high sensitivity and specificity and to compare the frequency and pattern of alterations between the two groups of tumors. The two groups of patients had indistinguishable preoperative serum prostate-specific antigen levels, and the two groups of tumors had similar pathological stages and grades. Chromosomal gains and deletions occurred in regions known to be frequently altered in prostate cancer. Specifically, the most frequent alterations were deletions of regions on chromosomes 13q, 5q, 16q, and 8p and gains of regions on 8q and 5q. When tumors from AAMs and CAMs were compared, the frequencies of alteration (deletion, gain, or no alteration) were similar across 98.9% of the length of the genome. The patterns of alterations of the most frequently altered chromosomes were also similar between tumors from AAMs and CAMs. We concluded that primary prostate cancers from AAMs and CAMs harbor a similar pattern and frequency of chromosomal alterations. These data support the notion that sporadic prostate cancers from AAMs and CAMs develop by similar chromosomal mechanisms. Biological differences, if present, do not occur on the chromosomal level.

Black People↗

Students' perceptions of their preparation for AIDS patient care: a national survey.

A survey of undergraduate students (n = 1,390) was conducted to determine their self-perceptions of their educational preparation to care of persons with HIV disease. HIV/AIDS content was included in the curricula of 97% of the respondents, with hours of instruction ranging from 0 to 18 with a mean of five. School policies regarding HIV clinical experiences varied from requiring all students to care for at least one AIDS patient to considering student preferences. Students (n = 944) perceived that faculty were willing to assign and supervise students in the care of HIV/AIDS patients. The majority of students (73%) believed that their preparation to care for AIDS patients was excellent or good. A genuine feeling of compassion was apparent in the responses of most students, and it was evident that faculty had taught students to care for HIV/AIDS patients without prejudice, and with respect for human life.

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome↗

Criteria for in vitro alternatives for the eye irritation test.

A proposal encompassing considerations and criteria for the development of in vitro alternatives to the eye irritation test has been developed and is presented here. Two factors need to be considered initially in developing an alternative test. The first is to determine whether the alternative assay is to be used as a screen or as a replacement for the eye irritation test. Less stringent acceptance criteria are required for an assay used as a screen than for that used as a replacement test. A screen is a preliminary test for the assessment of eye irritation. It is used for making preliminary decisions or establishing the direction for further testing. Screens answer fewer and less complex questions than a replacement test would, since the results from screens are usually confirmed by more definitive testing. A replacement test, however, must provide the same answers as in vivo methods for the assessment of eye irritation and must provide data for making a definitive toxicological assessment of eye irritation. The second factor to be considered is knowledge of the in vivo assay intended to be replaced. This knowledge should include the procedural aspects of the test and the regulatory information it provides. The following may be considered as criteria for in vitro tests used as screens or as replacements for the eye irritation test in rabbits: rationale (there should be a clear statement regarding the rationale for the use of a particular test in relation to the availability of other tests); relevance (the in vitro endpoint should have biological or physiological relevance to the effect to be detected in vivo); and validational (intralaboratory as well as interlaboratory validation must be conducted).

Animal Testing Alternatives↗

Screening procedures for eye irritation.

Screens aid in identifying some severe irritants or corrosives and eliminating them from consideration for in vivo eye irritation testing. Products may be evaluated for ocular irritation potential in a stepwise progression as follows: (1) products at pH extremes of 2 or below or of 11.5 or above may be considered to be ocular irritants; (2) based on chemical structure-activity considerations, some products may be judged to have ocular irritation potential; (3) validated and accepted in vitro systems may possibly be used as a screen in the future; (4) when a test material demonstrates severe acute dermal toxicity (lethality at < or = 200 mg/kg body weight), further testing for either dermal or ocular irritation may not need to be undertaken; (5) if a substance shows a primary dermal irritation index of 5 or above, it may be considered to be an ocular irritant; (6) materials that are not removed from consideration based on these proposed screens may then be considered for testing for ocular irritation in rabbits under accepted procedures. In a survey given to participants in the workshop, a high percentage believed that screens should be used. However, opinions on the use of the individual screens varied between the different interested groups attending, with the possible future use of in vitro screens for specific product lines having the highest percentage of agreement (57-100%).

Animal Testing Alternatives↗

Use of ophthalmic topical anaesthetics.

Pretreatment of the eyes of rabbits with a topical anaesthetic can be viewed as a refinement of the test for eye irritation. It reduces pain at the time of test-material administration, decreases animal distress and permits easier application of the test agent to the eye. In some cases, however, use of an anaesthetic either alone or in combination with the test substance may alter ocular responses or provide little benefit. Although anaesthetic pretreatment may result in decreased pain at the time of test-compound administration, it does not affect possible pain after the effects of the anaesthetic have dissipated. Some anaesthetics are themselves irritating to eyes. In addition, anaesthetics reduce blinking and tearing, thereby maintaining the test-material concentration at the surface of the eye longer. Corneal permeability may also be increased with pretreatment use of an anaesthetic, and may bring the test agent into contact with more structures of the eye. Some anaesthetics delay healing after ocular injury. All of these varied effects may result in increased irritation to the eye. Overall, pretreatment with anaesthetics has usually resulted in a tendency for slightly higher irritation scores; eye irritancy classification is usually unaffected.

Anesthetics, Local↗

The use of low-volume dosing in the eye irritation test.

The Draize rabbit eye test was developed to provide a method for assessing the irritation potential of materials that might come in contact with human eyes. The method involves the instillation of 0.1 ml of a test liquid (100 mg solid) into the conjunctival sac of an animal's eye. A refinement of the Draize test is the low-volume eye test in which 0.01 ml of a substance is placed directly on the cornea of the eye. Studies indicate that the low-volume method provides a better correlation to human eye irritation experience for some substances. The Interagency Regulatory Alternatives Group (IRAG) proposes that the low-volume eye test can be used to substantiate the irritancy of suspect severe ocular irritants that have not been eliminated by various pre-eye test 'screens'. A substance testing positive by the low-volume method can be classified as an irritant; one that tests negative will require further testing by the use of the 0.1-ml volume procedure. For all other definitive testing, the Draize test (0.1 ml) should be used. Results from a questionnaire distributed at the IRAG workshop showed that many workshop participants thought that the low-volume test should be used as an eye irritation screening procedure.

Animal Testing Alternatives↗

Number of animals for sequential testing.

US regulatory agencies have used six animals in eye irritation tests. Analyses of eye irritation tests on pesticides (n = 48), consumer products and cosmetics (n = 53), Marzulli and Ruggles database (n = 139), and cleaning products and ingredients (n = 30) have greatly extended previous investigations of the merit of reducing animal sample size in the eye test. Given the existing scoring system for positive animal responses (corneal opacity > or = 1, iritis > or = 1, conjunctival redness > or = 2 and conjunctival chemosis > or = 2), the accuracy of the classification systems currently used by these agencies was determined. The US Consumer Product Safety Commission, US Food and Drug Administration, and US Occupational Safety and Health Administration use a classification system by which a substance is designated as an irritant when at least four of six animals give a positive response. This decision rule leads to a very high accuracy of at least 99% with essentially no false positive and false negative judgments. In contrast, the system used by the US Environmental Protection Agency pesticide program, in which only one or more of six treated animals result in an irritant decision, has an accuracy of only 50-80% with very high false positive rates. Analyses indicated that test sample size could be reduced to three and still preserve very good accuracy, whereas two-animal and one-animal tests did not give satisfactory responses. A two-stage test, in which two animals are tested and evaluated in the first stage before the need for testing one more animal in the second stage is determined, also demonstrated good operating characteristics. Both the one-stage/three-animal test and the two-stage test deserve consideration.

Animals↗

Scoring for eye irritation tests.

Scoring of the rabbit eye test and the resulting evaluation and classification should provide useful information about the likelihood that a test material may cause injury on contact with the human eye. When an animal test is necessary, a rabbit eye test based on the following characteristics is proposed for deriving the maximum information from the fewest animals. The ocular effects of interest should include corneal opacity, iritis and conjunctival redness. Animals should be scored for each ocular effect at 24, 48 and 72 hr after the test substance is administered. If an animal is negative at all three scoring times, it can be removed from the test at 72 hr. If it shows a positive effect at a scoring time but the lesion clears at 72 hr, it can be removed at 72 hr. If it shows a positive effect that does not clear at 72 hr, it should be scored again on day 7 when the test ends. However, if an animal shows severe effects at one or more scoring times, it can be removed from the test at 72 hr. An animal is positive if any one of the following criteria is observed at 24, 48 or 72 hr: corneal opacity of 1 or above, iritis of 1 or above, or conjunctival redness of 2 or above. Severe ocular effects (noted at 24, 48 or 72 hr) that may endanger sight deserve special recognition for the classification of chemicals and include corneal opacity of 3 or above, or iritis of 2. This proposal is consistent with the opinions of the majority of respondents who attended the Workshop on Updating Eye Irritation Test Methods, Proposals for Regulatory Consensus. The most notable exception was the suggestion by respondents to add conjunctival chemosis as one of the scoring parameters.

Animals↗

An eye irritation test protocol and an evaluation and classification system.

An in vivo test protocol and an evaluation and classification system for the determination of eye irritation potential of chemicals and mixtures (substances) is proposed. The protocol uses two or three rabbits and reduces distress in test animals. The test substances are classified as non-irritant, irritant or severe irritant to meet regulatory needs. They may be classified on the basis of past experience with similar compounds or mixtures. Screens such as structure-activity relationships, pH extremes, validated and accepted in vitro tests, severe dermal irritation (primary dermal irritation index > or = 5) or severe dermal toxicity (lethality at < 200 mg/kg body weight) should be used to classify irritant or severe irritant materials when one or more of the screens can provide convincing evidence. For suspected severe irritant materials, the proposed in vivo test permits the use of one rabbit and instillation of 0.01 ml (0.01 g) of the test material into the cornea. Materials that are not classified irritant or severe irritant by screens or severe irritant by one rabbit test are tested in two or three rabbits; 0.1 ml (0.1 g) is instilled into the conjunctival sac. The responses (corneal opacity, iritis and conjunctival redness) are scored according to the modified Draize scoring system at 24, 48 and 72 hr and 7 days post-instillation. A rabbit is considered positive when corneal opacity of 1 or above, iritis of 1 or above or conjunctival redness of 2 or above is present at 24, 48 or 72 hr post-instillation. The material is classified as a severe irritant when the rabbit in the one-animal test or two or more rabbits in the standard test have responses of corneal opacity of 3 or above and iritis of 2 at 24, 48 or 72 hr, or positive responses on day 7 after instillation. The material is classified as an eye irritant when two or more rabbits are positive but the responses are not severe and they clear 7 days after instillation. The material is classified as a non-irritant when no more than one rabbit is positive. The opinions expressed in this article are those of the authors and do not necessarily reflect the views of US Federal agencies.

Animals↗