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Biomedical subjects

P Ray

Publications and source records attributed to P Ray.

At least 73 records · Page 4Linked to original sources

Efficacy, safety and immunogenicity of heptavalent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine in children. Northern California Kaiser Permanente Vaccine Study Center Group.

OBJECTIVE: To determine the efficacy, safety and immunogenicity of the heptavalent CRM197 pneumococcal conjugate vaccine against invasive disease caused by vaccine serotypes and to determine the effectiveness of this vaccine against clinical episodes of otitis media. METHODS: The Wyeth Lederle Heptavalent CRM197 (PCV) was given to infants at 2, 4, 6 and 12 to 15 months of age in a double blind trial; 37,868 children were randomly assigned 1:1 to receive either the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine or meningococcus type C CRM197 conjugate. The primary study outcome was invasive disease caused by vaccine serotype. Other outcomes included overall impact on invasive disease regardless of serotype, effectiveness against clinical otitis media visits and episodes, impact against frequent and severe otitis media and ventilatory tube placement. In addition the serotype-specific efficacy against otitis media was estimated in an analysis of spontaneously draining ears. RESULTS: In the interim analysis in August, 1998, 17 of the 17 cases of invasive disease caused by vaccine serotype in fully vaccinated children and 5 of 5 of partially vaccinated cases occurred in the control group for a vaccine efficacy of 100%. Blinded case ascertainment was continued until April, 1999. As of that time 40 fully vaccinated cases of invasive disease caused by vaccine serotype had been identified, all but 1 in controls for an efficacy of 97.4% (95% confidence interval, 82.7 to 99.9%), and 52 cases, all but 3 in controls in the intent-to-treat analysis for an efficacy of 93.9% (95% confidence interval, 79.6 to 98.5%). There was no evidence of any increase of disease caused by nonvaccine serotypes. Efficacy for otitis media against visits, episodes, frequent otitis and ventilatory tube placement was 8.9, 7.0, 9.3 and 20.1% with P < 0.04 for all. In the analysis of spontaneously draining ears, serotype-specific effectiveness was 66.7%. CONCLUSION: This heptavalent pneumococcal conjugate appears to be highly effective in preventing invasive disease in young children and to have a significant impact on otitis media.

Bacterial Vaccines↗

Persistence in higher dimensions: A finite size scaling study

We show that the persistence probability P(t,L), in a coarsening system of linear size L at a time t, has the finite-size scaling form P(t,L) approximately L(-zstraight theta)f(t/L(z)), where straight theta is the persistence exponent and z is the coarsening exponent. The scaling function f(x) approximately x(-straight theta) for x<<1 and is constant for large x. The scaling form implies a fractal distribution of persistent sites with power-law spatial correlations. We study the scaling numerically for the Glauber-Ising model at dimension d=1 to 4 and extend the study to the diffusion problem. Our finite-size scaling ansatz is satisfied in all these cases providing a good estimate of the exponent straight theta.

Journal Article↗

Inducible lung-specific expression of RANTES: preferential recruitment of neutrophils.

The chemokine regulated on activation normal T cells expressed and secreted (RANTES) has been implicated in eosinophil chemotaxis in asthma and allergic diseases, which are thought to be T helper (Th) type 2-dominated diseases. However, adoptive transfer of Th1 cells in mice upregulates RANTES gene expression in the lung, and increased RANTES expression has been documented in several Th1 cell-dominated conditions that are associated with neutrophilia. The in vivo role of RANTES in the pathogenesis of disease processes is not well understood. To determine the effect of RANTES expression alone in vivo, we generated transgenic mice that overexpress RANTES specifically in the lung in an inducible fashion. The airways of the transgenic mice overexpressing RANTES displayed a significant increase in neutrophil infiltration compared with that in control mice. The increased airway neutrophilia was also evident when the transgenic mice were tested in a murine model of allergic airway inflammation. RANTES expression also induced expression of the chemokine genes macrophage inflammatory protein-2, 10-kDa interferon-gamma-inducible protein, and monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 in the lungs of the transgenic mice. Our studies highlight a hitherto unappreciated role for RANTES in neutrophil trafficking during inflammation. Thus increased RANTES expression, as observed during respiratory viral infections, may play an important role in the associated neutrophilia and exacerbations of asthma.

Animals↗

Classification of a bacterial isolate, from pozol, exhibiting antimicrobial activity against several gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, yeasts, and molds.

A bacterial isolate, designated CS93, capable of producing a broad-spectrum antimicrobial compound(s) effective against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, yeasts, and molds was isolated from pozol, a fermented maize product. This strain was phenotypically similar to another pozol isolate that was previously designated as Agrobacterium azotophilium by other investigators. By using biochemical, phenotypic, and 16S rRNA sequence analysis, both pozol isolates were identified as members of the genus Bacillus, possibly a variant of Bacillus subtilis. While the antimicrobial compound(s) was initially produced only on a solid medium, parameters were identified for production in broth. The compound(s) was heat stable (121 degrees C for 15 min), exhibited activity over a wide pH range (pH 3 to pH 11), and was inactivated by pronase E. The antimicrobial compound(s) was bactericidal and bacteriolytic against Escherichia coli V517, bacteriostatic against Micrococcus luteus, and fungistatic against Saccharomyces cerevisiae. The inhibitory compound(s) could possibly serve as a food biopreservative.

Animals↗

Fungal endophthalmitis after a single intravenous administration of presumably contaminated dextrose infusion fluid.

PURPOSE: To report fungal endophthalmitis in nonimmunocompromised patients, each of whom received a single intravenous administration of presumably contaminated dextrose infusion fluid for minor ailments in rural settings. METHODS: This noncomparative case series included 12 nonimmunocompromised patients (12 eyes) with culture-positive fungal endophthalmitis. All eyes underwent initial vitreous tap with injection of intravitreal antibiotics. Eleven eyes required pars plana vitrectomy and oral fluconazole or itraconazole for 4 to 6 weeks. One patient with panophthalmitis was treated with intravenous amphotericin B. To support the hypothesis that contaminated intravenous fluid was the possible risk factor, samples from 72 sealed bottles of 5% dextrose were subjected to fungal culture. RESULTS: Patients presented 1 to 11 weeks (mean, 4.6 weeks) after the intravenous infusion. All eyes had a positive smear and cultures for fungi. Aspergillus specimen was isolated in nine eyes, Candida in two eyes, and Mucor in one eye. Final visual acuity was 20/80 or better in 8 (66.6%) eyes. Eleven of the 72 samples from dextrose bottles were culture-positive for fungi: six for Aspergillus fumigatus, three for Aspergillus niger, and two for Candida albicans. CONCLUSION: A presumed contaminated intravenous infusion administered in a rural setting was found as a new risk factor for development of endogenous fungal endophthalmitis. These patients were successfully treated with pars plana vitrectomy and oral fluconazole and itraconazole therapy.

Adult↗

Evaluation of E test for susceptibility testing of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to primary anti tubercular drugs.

BACKGROUND & OBJECTIVES: Antimicrobial susceptibility tests for tuberculosis take weeks and delayed therapy can lead to an increase in disease incidence. The E test is a new concept for minimum inhibitory concentrations (MIC) determinations for antimicrobial agents that is based on a predefined antibiotic gradient on a plastic strip calibrated with a continuous logarithmic MIC scale covering 15 two-fold dilutions. The present study was undertaken to evaluate E test strips for susceptibility testing of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. METHODS: Twenty five clinical isolates of M. tuberculosis were tested for the four first line antitubercular drugs by E test and were compared with standard proportion method. The inoculum turbidity was adjusted to McFarland 3.0 standard and agar plates (Middle brook 7H11 agar) were inoculated and preincubated (37 degrees C in 7-10% CO2) for 24 h after which time, the E test strips were placed on the agar surface which were incubated under same conditions. The MIC was interpreted as the point at which the ellipse intersected the 'E test' strip as described in E test technical guide. RESULTS: Of the 25 strains, susceptibility as determined by both methods for isoniazid (INH), rifampin, ethambutol and streptomycin was found in 22 (88%), 20 (80%), 24 (96%) and 18 (72%) strains respectively. Agreement between E test and proportion method was 96 per cent for INH, 92 per cent for rifampin and 100 per cent for ethambutol and streptomycin each. However, sensitivity could be predicted after 7-10 days by E test and exact MIC could also be determined. INTERPRETATION & CONCLUSIONS: E test method was found to be rapid, accurate, reliable and easy to perform. It can be employed for routine susceptibility testing for antitubercular drugs.

Antitubercular Agents↗

Compound heterozygosity for the Achondroplasia-hypochondroplasia FGFR3 mutations: prenatal diagnosis and postnatal outcome.

We report on a male newborn infant, a compound carrier of heterozygous mutations in the FGFR3 gene causing achondroplasia and hypochondroplasia. The mother has achondroplasia and carries the common G1138 (G380R) mutation in the FGFR3 gene; the father has hypochondroplasia due to the C1620A (N540K) mutation in the same gene. The fetus was found to carry both mutations diagnosed prenatally by amniocentesis at 17.6 weeks of gestation, following maternal serum screening which showed an increased risk for Down syndrome (1:337). Detailed fetal ultrasound studies showed a large head, short limbs, and a small chest at 22 weeks of gestation. The changes were more severe than those of either achondroplasia or hypochondroplasia. The patient was born by cesarean section at 38 weeks of gestation and had rhizomelic shortness of the upper and lower limbs with excess skin folds, large head, enlarged fontanelles, frontal bossing, lumbar gibbus, trident position of the fingers, and a narrow chest with a horizontal line of demarcation at the narrowest area of the chest. Skeletal radiographs showed shortness of the long bones and flare of metaphyses. He had respiratory difficulties and was treated with nasal prongs. Seizures developed on day 2 of life and recurred on day 9 and responded to treatment with phenobarbital. Brain computed tomographic scan showed possible grey matter heterotopia, partial agenesis of the corpus callosum, and cortical dysplasia. To our knowledge, there are only two previously published cases of compound heterozygous achondroplasia-hypochondroplasia patients. The diagnosis was confirmed by DNA mutation analysis of the FGFR3 gene in both cases.

Abnormalities, Multiple↗

Secondary structure of the C-terminal DNA-binding domain of the transcriptional activator NifA from Klebsiella pneumoniae: spectroscopic analyses.

The conformation of the C-terminal DNA-binding domain of the transcriptional activator NifA from Klebsiella pneumoniae has been probed by circular dichroism (CD), Fourier-transformed infrared (FT-IR), and nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy in combination. Secondary structure prediction suggests that the C-terminal half of the domain contains three alpha-helices. The spectra show that the domain is folded in the absence of DNA and of the N-terminal and central domains of NifA. The three spectroscopic techniques suggest slightly different proportions of secondary structural elements but all suggest that it contains about 33% alpha-helix. These results are in agreement with a previous prediction suggesting that NifA contains a helix-turn-helix motif and with the amount of alpha-helix predicted. The environment of the aromatic residues was examined by CD and NMR spectroscopy, which suggest that one or both of the tryptophan residues are involved in the tertiary structure of the protein but that the tyrosine residue in the helix-turn-helix motif is solvent exposed and so available to bind to DNA. The thermal melting profiles and pH-dependent structural changes were also examined by CD spectroscopy. This technique indicates that at low pH there is an increase in the secondary structure and interactions contributing to the tertiary structure. Many of the acidic residues are predicted to be on a single helix, before the helix-turn-helix motif, which may therefore be important for maintaining the structure and function of the C-terminal peptide; alternatively, the N-terminal half of the domain may become more folded at low pH.

Amino Acid Sequence↗

Quality of HMO vaccination databases used to monitor childhood vaccine safety. Vaccine Safety DataLink Team.

The availability of large, population-based, automated, medical care databases provides unique opportunities for monitoring the safety of childhood vaccines. The authors assessed the quality of automated vaccination databases by comparing them with vaccinations documented in paper-based medical records at three large US West Coast health maintenance organizations (HMOs) participating in the Vaccine Safety DataLink (VSD) study, a Centers for Disease Control and Prevention collaborative study of childhood vaccine safety. The authors randomly selected 1% or 2% samples of VSD study populations (n = 1,224-2,577) for data quality analyses. Agreement between automated and abstracted vaccinations required identical triads of child identification number, vaccination date, and vaccine type. Separate analyses were conducted for each HMO and for each vaccine type administered between 1991 and 1995. Agreement was measured by three matching proportions: 1) the proportion of automated vaccinations present in the abstracted source, 2) the proportion of abstracted vaccinations present in the automated source, and 3) the proportion of vaccinations from either source present in both sources. Overall, for common childhood vaccines, proportion 1 ranged from 83% to 99%, proportion 2 ranged from 82% to 98%, and proportion 3 ranged from 70% to 97%. Lack of automated data was the most frequent type of discrepancy, followed by date mismatches and vaccine type mismatches. Vaccination exposure classification errors in the range reported here were found by mathematical modeling to only modestly bias measured medical outcome rate ratios toward the null hypothesis. The results of the data quality analyses support the usefulness of vaccination exposure data derived from these automated HMO vaccination databases.

Abstracting and Indexing↗

Phospholipaise A2 and arachidonic acid-mediated mechanism of neuroexocytosis: a possible target of botidinum neurotoxin A other then SNAP-25.

The vesicular neuroexocytosis process consists of two important steps: fusion of transmitter-loaded vesicles at release sites on the presynaptic nerve terminal membrane; followed by the release of transmitter molecules into the synaptic cleft. We previously reported that in nerve growth factor (NGF)-differentiated PC12 cells, arachidonic acid (AA) release is associated with acetylcholine (ACh) release, botulinum neurotoxin A (BoNT/A) inhibits both processes and AA itself or a phospholipase A(2) (PLA(2)) activator can cause ACh release in BoNT/A-poisoned cells in which SNAP-25 has supposedly been hydrolyzed. In the present study, we examined the roles of two endogenous intraterminal components in neuroexocytosis: the membrane fusogenic agent AA; and the vesicle fusion protein SNAP-25. A PLA(2) activator, mastoparan, was used to induce the release of AA and ACh from NGF-differentiated PC12 cells. Release depended upon the mastoparan concentration, as well as Ca(2+) influx via the neuronal-type voltage-sensitive Ca(2+) channels. Release of ACh followed a rise in intracellular free Ca(2+) concentration; the increased Ca(2+) activated PLA(2) and, thereby, increased the AA level. Scanning and transmission electron microscopy confirmed that mastoparan-induced ACh and AA release were not due to simple diffusion through damaged plasma membranes. Treatment of PC12 cells with appropriate antisense oligonucleotides blocked SNAP-25 expression, as judged by Western blot protein analysis with a specific monoclonal antibody. Despite apparent elimination of SNAP-25, treatment of differentiated PC12 cells with mastoparan and high (80 mM) K(+) induced ACh exocytosis. The results support the conclusion that PLA(2) and AA have important roles in neuroexocytosis that are independent of SNAP-25. Both PLA(2) and AA have been shown to be involved in actin cytoskeletal organization related to vesicle fusion and exocytosis. This mechanism may be an alternative target of BoNT/A other than SNAP-25.

Acetylcholine↗

Aerobic 4-nitrophenol degradation by microorganisms fixed in a continuously working aerated solid-bed reactor.

Studies of microbial purification of a model waste water containing 4-nitrophenol were carried out in a continuously working aerobic solid-bed reactor. The main emphasis was on the dynamic behaviour of the system after a sudden change in cultivation conditions and on the steady state performance of the reactor as a function of the pollution load. A change from ammonium-free to ammonium-containing medium hardly influenced the nitrophenol degradation. The reactor responded differently to an increase in pollutant load, which was brought about by increasing either the 4-nitrophenol content or the flow of the waste water. Up to a load of 270 mg l-1 h-1 the pollutant was stably and almost completely degraded. At a higher load, only a partial 4-nitrophenol degradation took place. A mathematical model was derived to describe the processes that occurred in the reactor. By segregation into two compartments--the aqueous phase and the biofilm--account was taken of the fact that the pollutant is carried into the biofilm by diffusion and is degraded there. The observed relations between the pollutant load, the pollutant concentration in the outlet of the reactor and the reactor performance agreed with the simulated process behaviour. As the model simulation showed, the incomplete pollutant degradation at a higher reactor load was caused by oxygen limitation.

Aerobiosis↗

Self-assessed health-related quality of life in men being treated for prostate cancer with radiotherapy: instrument validation and its relation to patient-assessed bother of symptoms.

OBJECTIVES: To develop a psychometrically valid and clinically useful questionnaire to assess health-related quality of life (HRQOL) in patients with prostate cancer (PCa) undergoing external beam radiotherapy. The most important factors in three dimensions (bowel function [BF], urinary function [UF], and sexual function [SF]) were identified by patient survey. METHODS: Three HRQOL dimensions were assessed using Likert-type questions. Responses were analyzed by factor analysis to create HRQOL scales. Reliability and validity of the scales were assessed. Because patients can suffer symptoms yet not report their lives to be affected, the scales were compared with patient-reported bother. RESULTS: Two scales were identified within each dimension: BF, urgency and daily living; UF, urgency and weakness of stream; and SF, interest/satisfaction and impotence. Cronbach's alpha for the scales ranged from 0.63 to 0.94, and item-scale correlations and item-scale divergence correlations supported scale validity. Rising median scores correlated with rising levels of perceived bother. CONCLUSIONS: The questionnaire is a suitable tool for assessing HRQOL in three distinct dimensions for patients undergoing radiotherapy for PCa. Six dimensions of HRQOL were found to be related to bother, suggesting important relationships to be monitored for patients. Urgency of bowel movements, urgency of urination, and level of interest/satisfaction in sex correlated most strongly with bother.

Aged↗

Inhibition of allergic inflammation in a murine model of asthma by expression of a dominant-negative mutant of GATA-3.

The cytokines IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13, secreted by Th2 cells, have distinct functions in the pathogenesis of asthma. We have previously shown that the transcription factor GATA-3 is expressed in Th2 but not Th1 cells. However, it was unclear whether GATA-3 controls the expression of all Th2 cytokines. Expression of a dominant-negative mutant of GATA-3 in mice in a T cell-specific fashion led to a reduction in the levels of all the Th2 cytokines IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13. Airway eosinophilia, mucus production, and IgE synthesis, all key features of asthma, were severely attenuated in the transgenic mice. Thus, targeting GATA-3 activity alone is sufficient to blunt Th2 responses in vivo, thereby establishing GATA-3 as a potential therapeutic target in the treatment of asthma and allergic diseases.

Aerosols↗

[14C]-urea breath test to confirm eradication of Helicobacter pylori.

BACKGROUND: Treatment for Helicobacter pylori reduces ulcer recurrence. Eradication rates of the organism vary with different drug regimens from 30% to 90%. There is a need to identify patients who have failed treatment. [14C]-Urea breath test (UBT) is non-invasive, sensitive, safe and highly reliable test for diagnosis of H. pylori infection. As there is a paucity of reports on the utility of [14C]-UBT in confirming H. pylori eradication, this study was undertaken. METHODS: Thirty-eight patients (age 34 +/- 17 years, range 16-84 years, 27 men) with upper gastrointestinal symptoms underwent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Baseline H. pylori infection was diagnosed by identification of the organism on antral biopsies and positive rapid urease test (RUT). After 1 month of completion of treatment, repeat RUT and histological examination of antral endoscopic biopsies were performed. Eradication of H. pylori was defined as absence of the organism on histology, and negative RUT. The [14C]-UBT was performed using 185 kBq [14C]-urea dissolved in 300 mL water. Breath samples were collected once before ingestion of [14C]-urea, and subsequently at 5 and 15 min. Results were expressed as 14CO2/mmol CO2 exhaled as per cent of administered urea. RESULTS: Endoscopy revealed antral gastritis (n = 14), duodenal ulcer (n = 8), duodenitis (n = 2), oesophagitis (n = 1), antral gastritis and duodenal ulcer (n = 3), antral gastritis and duodenitis (n = 7) and normal upper gastrointestinal endoscopy (n = 3). All the 20 patients who were negative for H. pylori on RUT and histology, tested negative for H. pylori on [14C]-UBT. However, of 18 patients shown to have H. pylori infection on RUT and histology, 16 were positive for H. pylori on [14C]-UBT. The sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, negative predictive value and accuracy of [14C]-UBT were 100, 89, 91, 100 and 95% respectively. CONCLUSIONS: The [14C]-UBT is a reliable indicator of H. pylori eradication after treatment. It can obviate the need for antral biopsies to confirm eradication of H. pylori after completion of treatment.

Adult↗

Social factors affecting interest in participating in a prostate cancer chemoprevention trial.

PURPOSE: A sample survey was conducted to assess the feasibility of recruiting participants, specifically African Americans, and to determine social factors influencing participation in a prostate cancer chemoprevention trial. METHODS: A convenience sample of adults visiting a hospital was identified and asked to participate in the survey. The survey included brief background information about prostate cancer and questions concerning four independent (age, marital status, race, insurance status) and three dependent (willingness to join a trial, involvement in long-term drug intake, interest in receiving more information) variables. RESULTS: The study analyzed 165 responses. Of the 165 respondents, 67% were African American. Marital status was a significant predictor of general willingness to participate (p = 0.047) for male respondents. No significant predictor was found for female respondents. Furthermore, for men, ethnicity/race showed a significant difference (30% white men vs 70% of minority men) for willingness to take the pills. CONCLUSION: The results suggest that African Americans are receptive to participating in chemopreventive trials. Thus, future studies exploring chemoprevention trials as an effective tool for reaching African Americans are warranted.

Black or African American↗

Racial differences in prostate-specific antigen levels and prostate-specific antigen densities in patients with prostate cancer.

To compare serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels and PSA density (PSAD) among African American (AA), white, and Hispanic men with prostate cancer (PC) seen in an urban, equal-access urology clinic. Between January 1988 and January 1993, 1,105 men were screened for PC at Cook County Hospital in Chicago, Illinois. A total of 529 men underwent transrectal ultrasound-guided prostate gland biopsies for abnormal digital rectal examination, suspect transrectal ultrasound, elevated PSA, or any combination of these abnormalities. PC was found in 246 patients (204 AAs, 22 whites, and 20 Hispanics). We analyzed the differences in PSA and PSAD among the three racial groups using univariate and multivariate analyses adjusting for race, age, clinical stage, and grade. AAs have a higher mean serum PSA levels (21.56 ng/ml) than whites (mean PSA of 10.96 ng/ml) and Hispanics (mean PSA of 8.25 ng/ml) (p = 0.04). The mean PSAD also was higher in AAs than in the other two groups (0.68 versus 0.34 for whites and 0.31 for Hispanics, p = 0.05). On a multivariate analysis, the PC stage and grade were overwhelmingly significant, whereas the race and age lost their statistical significance. AAs have higher serum PSA and PSAD than whites or Hispanics in an equal-access healthcare environment. Race is a significant factor in determining PSA and PSAD on univariate but not on multivariate analysis. Preliminary studies suggest that these differences are due to sociological, not biologic causes. These findings warrant a large, prospective study to investigate the extent and the causes of the racial differences in PSA and PSAD.

Black or African American↗

Helicobacter pylori eradication: comparison of three treatment regimens in India.

Conventional bismuth-based triple therapy has multiple problems, such as inadequate drug compliance, side effects, and drug resistance. Combination of omeprazole and clarithromycin with or without combination with antibiotics like amoxycillin has been shown to be effective in eradication of Helicobacter pylori. Reports from India are few on the efficacy of clarithromycin-based drug combinations. Therefore, we evaluated efficacy of omeprazole and clarithromycin with or without amoxycillin for treating H. pylori infection. Sixty-four consecutive patients with upper gastrointestinal symptoms and having H. pylori infection were included. In every patient, complete upper gastrointestinal endoscopy was done. H. pylori infection was diagnosed by identification of organism on antral biopsies and positive rapid urease test. Patients were treated with omeprazole 40 mg/day + clarithromycin 250 mg twice daily (group I, n = 22), or omeprazole 40 mg/day + clarithromycin 250 mg twice daily + amoxycillin 500 mg three times daily (group II, n = 20), or bismuth subcitrate 120 mg four times daily + amoxycillin 500 mg three times daily + metronidazole 400 mg three times daily (group III, n = 22) for 2 weeks. H. pylori status was reevaluated 1 month after completion of treatment. One patient in each group stopped drugs due to side effects. Eradication rate was not significantly different in group I (15/22, 68%), group II (14/20, 70%), and group III (13/22, 59%). Of those completing therapy, side effects were observed in three patients in group III (nausea, skin rash, metallic taste), whereas none of the patients in group I and group II had any side effects. Addition of amoxycillin did not appear to improve efficacy of dual omeprazole and clarithromycin therapy and appeared to be no different than bismuth, metronidazole, and amoxycillin triple therapy. Overall, none of regimens was particularly good.

Adolescent↗