Biomedical subjects
Publications and source records attributed to R Kagan.
High antibody titers in ruminants infected with Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis correlates with disease progression. Effects of humoral responses during mycobacterial infection are not completely understood. This study suggests that activation status may be an important factor in determining macrophage ability to limit proliferation of opsonized M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis.
We report the first observation of the decay B+-->psi(3770)K+ where the psi(3770) is reconstructed in the D0(-)D(0) and D+D- decay channels. The obtained branching fraction is B(B+-->psi(3770)K+)=(0.48+/-0.11+/-0.07)x10(-3). We have measured the branching fraction for the decay B+-->D0(-)D0K+ to be (1.17+/-0.21+/-0.15)x10(-3) and set a 90% confidence level upper limit of 0.90 x 10(-3) for the decay B+-->D+D-K+. We also present the results of a search for possible decays to D(-)D and D0(-)D(0)pi(0) of the recently observed X(3872) particle. The analysis is based on 88 fb(-1) of data collected at the Upsilon(4S) resonance by the Belle detector at the KEKB asymmetric-energy e(+)e(-) collider.
Using a sample of 31.3x10(6) BB pairs collected with the Belle detector at the Upsilon(4S) resonance, we make the first observation of the charged B meson decay to chi(c0) and a charged kaon. The measured branching fraction is B(B+-->chi(c0)K+) = (6.0(+2.1)(-1.8)+/-1.1)x10(-4), where the first error is statistical, and the second is systematic.
We report the first observation of the exclusive decay process B-->J/psi K(1)(1270) using a sample of 11.2M BB macro meson pairs collected in the Belle detector at the KEKB asymmetric energy e(+)e(-) collider. We measure branching fractions of B[B(0)-->J/psi K(0)(1)(1270)] = (1.30+/-0.34+/-0.32) x 10(-3) and B[B(+)-->J/psi K(+)(1)(1270)] = (1.80+/-0.34+/-0.39) x 10(-3), where the first error is statistical and the second is systematic. These modes constitute approximately 15% of the total number of B-->J/psi X decays. No evidence is seen for B-->J/psi K(1)(1400) and we set an upper limit for this branching fraction.
We report observations of the Cabibbo suppressed decays B-->D((*))K- using a 10.4 fb(-1) data sample accumulated at the Upsilon(4S) resonance with the Belle detector at the KEKB e(+)e(-) storage ring. We find that the ratios of Cabibbo suppressed to Cabibbo favored branching fractions are B(B--->D0K-)/B(B--->D0pi(-)) = 0.079+/-0.009+/-0.006, B(B(0)-->D+K-)/B(B(0)-->D+pi(-)) = 0.068+/-0.015+/-0.007, B(B--->D(*0)K-)/B(B--->D(*0)pi(-)) = 0.078+/-0.019+/-0.009, and B(B(0)-->D(*+)K-)/B(B(0)-->D(*+)pi(-)) = 0.074+/-0.015+/-0.006. These are the first observations of the B-->D+K-, D(*0)K-, and D(*+)K- decay processes.
We present a measurement of the standard model CP violation parameter sin2 phi(1) based on a 29.1 fb(-1) data sample collected at the Upsilon(4S) resonance with the Belle detector at the KEKB asymmetric-energy e(+)e(-) collider. One neutral B meson is fully reconstructed as a J/psi K(S), psi(2S)K(S), chi(c1)K(S), eta(c)K(S), J/psi K(L), or J/psi K(*0) decay and the flavor of the accompanying B meson is identified from its decay products. From the asymmetry in the distribution of the time intervals between the two B meson decay points, we determine sin2 phi(1) = 0.99+/-0.14(stat)+/-0.06(syst). We conclude that we have observed CP violation in the neutral B meson system.
We report a determination of the B(0)(d)-&B_(0)(d) mixing parameter Deltam(d) based on the time evolution of dilepton yields in Upsilon(4S) decays. The measurement is based on a 5.9 fb(-1) data sample collected by the Belle detector at KEKB. The proper-time difference distributions for same-sign and opposite-sign dilepton events are simultaneously fitted to an expression containing Deltam(d) as a free parameter. Using both muons and electrons, we obtain Deltam(d) = 0.463+/-0.008 (stat)+/-0.016 (syst) ps(-1). This is the first determination of Deltam(d) from time evolution measurements at the Upsilon(4S). We also place limits on possible CPT violations.
We present a measurement of the standard model CP violation parameter sin2 phi(1) (also known as sin2beta) based on a 10.5 fb(-1) data sample collected at the Upsilon(4S) resonance with the Belle detector at the KEKB asymmetric e(+)e(-) collider. One neutral B meson is reconstructed in the J/psiK(S), psi(2S)K(S), chi(c1)K(S), eta(c)K(S), J/psiK(L), or J/psipi(0) CP-eigenstate decay channel and the flavor of the accompanying B meson is identified from its charged particle decay products. From the asymmetry in the distribution of the time interval between the two B-meson decay points, we determine sin2 phi(1) = 0.58(+0.32)(-0.34)(stat)+0.09-0.10(syst).
BACKGROUND: Accurate diagnosis of peanut allergy is essential given that it is a lifelong and potentially fatal food allergy. Diagnosis relies on patient history, prick skin test (PST), and in many situations, food challenge. More information is required on the safety of food challenge and the informational value of a PST. OBJECTIVES: Primary: to assess the safety of peanut challenges. Secondary: to estimate the sensitivity, specificity, and the positive and negative predictive values of PST to peanut performed in those who underwent a peanut challenge. METHODS: A retrospective study of peanut challenges performed at a tertiary care paediatric hospital allergy clinic between January 1994 and November 1998. RESULTS: Of the 140 peanut challenges performed on 140 patients, 18 were positive. The most frequent adverse clinical effects of positive peanut challenges were: urticaria, oropharyngeal irritation, rhinitis, vomiting and abdominal pain. Among the 18 patients who had a positive result, 10 required medical treatment (antihistamines, +/- epinephrine, +/- salbutamol) to control the allergic reaction. The sensitivity, specificity, and the positive and negative predictive values of PST to peanut in this group of children undergoing a peanut challenge were 100%, 62.3%, 28.1% and 100%, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: Given the poor positive predictive value and specificity of PST, a peanut challenge is usually required to diagnose peanut allergy with certainty when the PST is positive. In cases of a clear history of anaphylaxis to peanut and a positive PST, challenges are unwarranted. When the history is strongly suggestive and the PST is borderline positive, i.e. 3 or 4 mm, peanut challenge is generally necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Given the excellent negative predictive value and sensitivity of PST, a blinded peanut challenge is usually unnecessary in the context of a negative PST except for patients with a history strongly suggestive of immediate hypersensitivity. These patients should be individually assessed for the need to undergo a blinded challenge. The peanut challenge is a useful and safe diagnostic tool when performed by qualified personnel under appropriate conditions.
BACKGROUND: Peanut-allergic patients are affected by a condition which forces them and their families to exercise extreme dietary vigilance and experience constant uncertainty throughout their lives. OBJECTIVE: To compare the quality of life and family relations of children and adults with a peanut allergy to that of children and adults with a rheumatological disease. METHODS: Patients with a confirmed diagnosis of peanut allergy or a rheumatological disease completed (for children less than 18 years, by proxy) self-report questionnaires regarding the impact of their condition on their quality of life and family relations. A vertical visual analogue scale and the Impact on Family Questionnaire (IFQ) served as outcome measures. RESULTS: One hundred and fifty-three peanut-allergic children were compared with 69 children with a rheumatological disease while 37 peanut-allergic adults were compared with 42 adults with a rheumatological disease. The parents of peanut-allergic children, compared to the parents of children with a rheumatological disease, reported that their children had significantly more disruption in their daily activities. Furthermore, the parents of peanut-allergic children reported more impairment in the familial-social dimension of the IFQ. Conversely, adults with a chronic rheumatological disease reported more disruption in their family relations than peanut-allergic adults. CONCLUSION: Given the considerable disruption in daily activities and family relations reported by the parents of peanut-allergic children, accurate diagnosis of peanut allergy is essential. Our work should make health care professionals dealing with children with confirmed peanut allergy more aware of the support that these families may require. Furthermore, we hope to motivate food industries to offer more 'peanut free' products to decrease the dietary restrictions of these patients while minimizing their potential for accidental ingestion.
Conventional radiotherapy alone in treatment of unresectable or locally advanced head and neck cancer has poor results. To improve outcome without significant increase in acute and late morbidity, we began a moderately accelerated hyperfractionation radiation therapy protocol without breaks for treatment of unresectable/advanced head and neck malignancies. From August 1984 to June 1995, 48 patients with unresectable or advanced carcinoma of the head and neck were treated using a protocol of accelerated hyperfractionation radiation therapy at Kaiser Permanente Medical Center, Los Angeles. Patients were treated twice a day using 150 cGy per fraction, 4 days per week, to a final dose of 60 Gy. Two patients were excluded from this analysis because they did not complete treatment. With a median follow-up of 33 months, 31 (67%) patients have had disease recurrence, 30 (65%) of whom had a locoregional component to their failures. At the last follow-up, 12 patients (26%) were alive with no evidence of disease, 30 patients had died of disease, and 4 had died of intercurrent disease without recurrence. Nine (19%) patients required treatment interruptions averaging 8 days in duration. This accelerated regimen resulted in outcomes similar to those with conventional radiotherapy, most likely because of a conservative total dose. Further refinement of fractionation schedules with potential incorporation of chemotherapy must be investigated.
The activities of antimicrobial combinations from three geographically diverse skin/tissue banks used in the processing of skin/ tissue were compared using bacteria and yeast isolated from burn patients. All formulations showed 90% or more effectiveness against bacteria generally susceptible to antibiotics but were less effective (60-80%) when tested against bacteria resistant to specific antimicrobials. Anti-yeast activity was present when an appropriate antifungal agent was included in the combination. All formulations were stable for at least six weeks. Results of this study raise certain questions about the use of these antimicrobial combinations in contemporary skin/tissue banking and point the way toward areas for future study.
BACKGROUND: It has been reported that transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) after definitive radiation therapy for prostate cancer is associated with a significant risk of incontinence. The presumed reason for incontinence is external sphincter damage from TURP or pre-existing damage from either extension of prostate cancer or radiation therapy. METHODS: We reviewed seven recent cases of TURP for bladder outlet obstruction in patients who had undergone radiation therapy for clinical stage T(3-4)M(0)N(0) adenocarcinoma of the prostate. All seven men progressed to either chronic retention or debilitating obstructive symptoms with weak peak flows from 3.4 to 5.1 cc/s (mean 4 cc/s). Each of them subsequently underwent a limited TURP. RESULTS: Voiding symptoms were reduced in all patients and peak flows were improved to 6.3 to 20 cc/s (mean 14.8 cc/s) with mean follow-up 35 m. No patient developed stress urinary incontinence postoperatively. CONCLUSION: These results suggest that TURP can be performed successfully after radiation therapy with minimal risk of stress incontinence.
OBJECTIVE: Energy expenditure measurements, performed while patients are in standardized resting conditions, are often used as an indicator of care by which to evaluate the adequacy of nutrition support regimens. Little attention has been directed toward examining potential errors incurred by deriving daily energy needs based on a single 15- to 20-minute measurement. This study was designed to differentiate energy expenditure during periods of sleep (defined as time spent in any of the standard sleep stages) and wakefulness in pediatric burn patients. DESIGN: Twenty-four-hour indirect calorimetry, polysomnography, and physiologic assessments (mean arterial pressure, heart rate, body temperature, oxygen saturation, and respiratory rate) were conducted simultaneously in 14 patients, who were thermally injured and tracheally intubated, for a total of 45 24-hour intervals. SUBJECTS: Mean age of the patients was 10.8+/-1.2 years. Mean total body surface area of the injury was 55.7+/-4.7%, and mean full-thickness burn was 48.8+/-6.0%. STATISTICAL ANALYSES PERFORMED: A nested general linear analysis of variance model was used to evaluate the association between sleep, wakefulness, and energy needs; adjustments were made for postburn day and multiple test runs per patient. RESULTS: On average, subjects slept 699+/-46 minutes/day. They experienced a large number of awakenings from sleep (mean=53+/-6.3 awakenings per 24 hours). Patients had mean energy expenditure of 2,529+/-396 kcal/day while awake and 2,360+/-291 kcal/day while asleep, and these mean values did not differ significantly. No differences in physiologic measurements during the awake and sleep states were found. APPLICATIONS: There appears to be little difference in the metabolism of seriously injured burn patients while asleep and while awake. The study deemphasizes the importance of performing indirect calorimetry at rest in critically ill pediatric burn patients, and it supports the extrapolation of daily energy expenditure from a 15- to 20-minute steady-state measurement obtained during either sleep or wakefulness.
This study was undertaken to examine radiation treatment complications. From September 1987 through December 1989, 29,380 patients were screened at their follow-up visits for possible radiation complications. Of these patients, 1,380 were singled out for further study. These 1,380 charts were examined by a radiation oncologist and physicist to determine if there was a radiation complication, the severity of the complication, and whether a calculation or setup error could account for the complications. Of the 1,380 patients studied, 178 (3% of new patients treated each year) were determined to have radiation complications. These complications were divided into four categories of severity and entered into our computerized tumor registry as follows: complication type R1, complete recovery from symptoms, n = 59; R2, injury requiring medications to control injury, n = 104; S1, surgical intervention for one organ, n = 12; and S2, surgical intervention for two organs, n = 3. We believe that a baseline complication rate of 5% is acceptable in radiation oncology practices. However, the examination and documentation of the outcome of care in the form of radiation complications can help improve patient care and keep the radiation oncologist abreast of treatment outcome trends in the department.
Sixty-two previously untreated patients with squamous cell carcinoma of the base of tongue were retrospectively analyzed. The American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) Stage distribution was I-3, II-7, III-24, and IV-28. The choice of treatment was nonrandomized. The local control was 10/18 with high-dose preoperative radiation, 17/30 with external beam radiation only, and 4/14 with external beam plus interstitial implantation. The median survival for the three treatment regimens were 63, 51, and 13 months, respectively. Preoperative radiation is suggested for tumors with inferior (laryngeal) spread or those with extensive superior extension (to tonsillar fossa and beyond). For centrally placed lesions in the base of the tongue (with or without lateral hypopharyngeal wall spread), radiation alone is recommended. An interstitial implantation should be restricted to lesions equal to or less than 4 x 3 x 2.5 cm3. Since this insertion is technically more demanding than for tumors of the mobile tongue, they should be performed by the more experienced brachytherapist.
Melanoma is characterized by a tendency to metastasize widely throughout the body and its relative affinity for gallium-67. Because of the ability of this nuclide to image tumor sites in numerous organ systems, it has been used to detect metastases in patients with malignant melanoma. The effectiveness of this technique, however, has been controversial. This article documents the retrospective analysis of results from 296 gallium-67 scintiscans from 222 patients with melanoma. Patients were placed in two groups. The low suspicion group (148 patients undergoing 191 scans) consisted of patients with no evidence of disease; the gallium scans were performed solely for screening purposes. There were 175 true-negative scans, nine true-positive scans (eight of the nine were positive only at the untreated primary site), three false-negative scans, and four false-positive scans. Therefore, in only one patient (0.5%) did a "screening" gallium scan reveal disease that was not expected. The high suspicion group (85 patients undergoing 105 scans) consisted of patients with established evidence of metastatic disease; the gallium scan was performed to confirm those findings and to search for involvement of other organ systems. Of these scans, ten were true-negative, 73 true-positive, 21 false-negative, and one false-positive. In this group the 20% false-negative results indicate that gallium scanning is considerably less sensitive than the combination of clinical and standard radiographic assessment. It was concluded that gallium-67 scintiscanning of patients with melanoma, whether for screening or evaluation of patients with known metastases, provides little information that affects clinical staging or therapeutic design. Therefore, the technique is of limited value for routinely investigating the extent of disease.
Deep burns of the hands require skin flap coverage in order to protect the exposed vital structures. The groin flap is a safe and effective method of obtaining early closure of these defects. We have used groin flaps to cover deep hand burn defects in nine patients. In each case, groin flaps effectively covered the various defects, such as the volar aspect of the wrist, dorsum of the hand, first web space, thumb, and fingers.