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Biomedical subjects

R Mahmood

Publications and source records attributed to R Mahmood.

At least 19 recordsLinked to original sources

Effect of potassium dichromate on renal brush border membrane enzymes and phosphate transport in rats.

Chromium is widely used in industry but exposure to chromium compounds in the workplace can result in nephrotoxicity. Various nephrotoxicants affect the brush border membrane (BBM) lining the epithelial cells of the proximal tubule, but there have been no studies regarding the effect of potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7), a hexavalent chromium compound, on renal BBM. In the present work, the effect of administering a single intraperitoneal dose (15 mg/kg body weight) of K2Cr2O7 on rat renal BBM enzymes and inorganic phosphate (Pi) transport was studied. The animals were administered normal saline (control) or K2Cr2O7 and sacrificed 1, 2, 4 and 8 days after treatment. K2Cr2O7 induced reversible damage to the rat kidney function as indicated by serum creatinine (Scr) and urea nitrogen levels. The activities of BBM marker enzymes were significantly decreased in isolated BBM vesicles (BBMV) and homogenates of cortex and medulla on 1, 2 and 4 days after administration of K2Cr2O7 with complete recovery to control values after 8 days. The decrease in the activities of the enzymes was mainly due to changes in maximum velocity (V(max)) values, while the Michaelis constant (Km) remained unchanged. The sodium dependent Pi transport across BBMV was reduced by 50% after treatment with K2Cr2O7. Thus, the administration of a single dose of K2Cr2O7 leads to impairment in the functions of renal BBM. These results suggest that the nephrotoxicity of K2Cr2O7 may be mediated, at least in part, by its effect on renal BBM.

Animals↗

Clinical signs as a guide for performing HSV-PCR in correct diagnosis of herpes simplex virus encephalitis.

BACKGROUND: Clinical criteria (symptoms) are not reliable enough to differentiate between different causes of encephalitis. The clinical presentation of herpes simplex virus encephalitis (HSVE) is not classically constant and in such a patient, therefore, it is vital to make early diagnosis. AIMS: To investigate satisfactory and crucial clinical signs as guide to perform HSV-PCR in a rapid diagnosis of herpes simplex virus encephalitis. MATERIAL AND METHODS: A total of 156 CSF specimens from 70 patients with clinically suspected HSVE or meningoencephalitis were tested. The criteria for cases suspected of HSVE were fever >380C, altered mental status and other critical manifestations. CSF features, irregularity in brain CT scan and MRI findings were also assessed. All the specimens were collected before and after Acyclovir treatment. Polymerase chain reaction was performed using primers, which amplified DNA sequences for both HSV-1 and HSV-2. STATISTICAL ANALYSIS: To analyze data, two-tailed Fisher's exact test and the X2-test with Yates' correction were used as appropriate. The odds ratio was used to express the strength of association between the clinical factors and the PCR results. RESULTS: HSV-DNA was detected in 18% of the specimens, belonging to 25.7% of the patients. Results indicate that the majority of the clinical symptoms are not specific to definitive clinical diagnosis of HSVE, except alteration in the level of consciousness--odds ratio [0.27 (0.07-0.96) (P=0.033)]; and lateralization sign--odds ratio [4.7 (0.98-22.6) (P=0.023)]. However, laboratory data, including total white blood cell count, especially the number of lymphocytes, and MRI findings could be suggested for HSV-PCR examination. CONCLUSION: At the first admission, a preliminary finding of at least two important clinical features mentioned above along with the pattern of CSF cell and differential counts could be sufficient to perform HSV-PCR which could ultimately result in a rapid and correct diagnosis of herpes simplex encephalitis.

Adolescent↗

Characterization of the Crithidia fasciculata mRNA cycling sequence binding proteins.

The Crithidia fasciculata cycling sequence binding protein (CSBP) binds with high specificity to sequence elements in several mRNAs that accumulate periodically during the cell cycle. Mutations in these sequence elements abolish both cycling of the mRNA and binding of CSBP. Two genes, CSBPA and CSBPB, encoding putative subunits of CSBP have been cloned and were found to be present in tandem on the same DNA molecule and to be closely related. CSBPA and CSBPB are predicted to encode proteins with sizes of 35.6 and 42.0 kDa, respectively. Both CSBPA and CSBPB proteins have a predicted coiled-coil domain near the N terminus and a novel histidine and cysteine motif near the C terminus. The latter motif is conserved in other trypanosomatid species. Gel sieving chromatography and glycerol gradient sedimentation results indicate that CSBP has a molecular mass in excess of 200 kDa and an extended structure. Recombinant CSBPA and CSBPB also bind specifically to the cycling sequence and together can be reconstituted to give an RNA gel shift similar to that of purified CSBP. Proteins in cell extracts bind to an RNA probe containing six copies of the cycling sequence. The RNA-protein complexes contain both CSBPA and CSBPB, and the binding activity cycles in near synchrony with target mRNA levels. CSBPA and CSBPB mRNA and protein levels show little variation throughout the cell cycle, suggesting that additional factors are involved in the cyclic binding to the cycling sequence elements.

Amino Acid Sequence↗

Molecular cytogenetic analysis of eight inversion duplications of human chromosome 13q that each contain a neocentromere.

Neocentromeres are fully functional centromeres that have arisen in previously noncentromeric chromosomal locations on rearranged chromosomes. The formation of neocentromeres results in the mitotic stability of chromosomal fragments that do not contain endogenous centromeres and that would normally be lost. Here we describe a unique collection of eight independent patient-derived cell lines, each of which contains a neocentromere on a supernumerary inversion duplication of a portion of human chromosome 13q. Findings in these patients reveal insight into the clinical manifestations associated with polysomy for portions of chromosome 13q. The results of FISH and immunofluorescent analysis of the neocentromeres in these chromosomes confirm the lack of alpha-satellite DNA and the presence of CENtromere proteins (CENP)-C, -E, and hMAD2. The positions of the inversion breakpoints in these chromosomes have been placed onto the physical map of chromosome 13, by means of FISH mapping with cosmid probes. These cell lines define, within chromosome 13q, at least three distinct locations where neocentromeres have formed, with five independent neocentromeres in band 13q32, two in band 13q21, and one in band 13q31. The results of examination of the set of 40 neocentromere-containing chromosomes that have thus far been described, including the 8 neocentromere-containing chromosomes from chromosome 13q that are described in the present study, suggest that chromosome 13q has an increased propensity for neocentromere formation, relative to some other human chromosomes. These neocentromeres will provide the means for testing hypotheses about sequence requirements for human centromere formation.

Aneuploidy↗

Mechanisms of maternal aneuploidy: FISH analysis of oocytes and polar bodies in patients undergoing assisted conception.

We have examined unfertilised oocytes and their first polar bodies (PBs) to determine the way in which the frequency of whole chromosome imbalance compares with that involving single chromatids and whether the precocious separation of chromatids prior to anaphase I affects all pairs of chromosomes. We have applied the technique of fluorescent in situ hybridisation in a three-stage method by using locus-specific probes for chromosomes 13 and 21 and alpha-satellite probes for chromosomes 1, 9, 16, 18 and X to determine the chromosome status of oocytes and their PBs. We obtained analysable results from 127 oocytes and 57 PBs from 72 patients of average age 33 years. Six oocytes and three PBs had extra signals but, of these, three were derived from a single patient, aged 26. Anomalies were seen in chromosomes 13, 16, 18, X and, notably, 21 but none were observed in chromosomes 1 and 9. Half of the anomalies involved additional chromatids rather than whole chromosomes. Since particular chromatids were found to be prematurely separated in the metaphase II oocyte, this may provide further evidence for an additional mechanism of maternal aneuploidy that operates at anaphase II. Detailed analyses of both oocytes and PBs have elucidated possible mechanisms leading to aneuploid gametes in this group of patients with fertility problems.

Adult↗

LC assay method for oxfendazole and oxyclozanide in pharmaceutical preparation.

A method has been developed for the simultaneous determination of oxfendazole and oxyclozanide in a pharmaceutical preparation. The method involves reversed phase chromatography with isocratic elution of the mobile phase and detection at 300 nm. The range of quantification for oxfendazole and oxyclozanide was found to be 2-7 microg ml(-1) and 3-10 microg ml(-1), respectively. The validity of the method was evaluated in terms of linear regression analysis, precision, specificity and accuracy.

Antiplatyhelmintic Agents↗

Inducible protective processes in animal systems VI. Cross-adaptation and the influence of caffeine on the adaptive response in bone marrow cells of mouse.

The effect of caffeine (CAF) (a replicative DNA synthesis inhibitor) given as pre-, inter- and post-treatments on the ethyl methanesulfonate (EMS)-induced adaptive response in in vivo mouse bone marrow cells was studied in order to understand the influence of CAF on the adaptive response. The pre-treatment was given 4 h before a combined treatment with EMS (conditioning + challenge) and in another set CAF was given as a conditioning dose and 4 h later the cells were challenged with a high dose of EMS. In the inter-treatment, CAF (40 mg/kg body wt) was administered 2 or 4 h after the conditioning dose of EMS and 6 or 4 h later the cells were challenged with a high dose of EMS. Similarly, in the post-treatment experiments, CAF was injected 6, 12 or 18 h after a combined treatment with EMS. The results revealed that the pre-, inter- and post-treatments with CAF significantly reduced the frequency of chromosomal aberrations compared with the challenge and combined treatments with EMS. It is interesting to note that CAF pre-treatment resulted in a much greater reduction in chromosomal aberrations compared with the inter- and post-treatments. Thus, this is an example of cross-adaptation induced by CAF in EMS-treated in vivo mouse bone marrow cells and the results also demonstrate an influence of CAF on the adaptive response.

Acclimatization↗

Identification of cis and trans elements involved in the cell cycle regulation of multiple genes in Crithidia fasciculata.

Transcripts of several DNA replication genes, including the RPA1 and TOP2 genes, encoding the large subunit of nuclear replication protein A and the kinetoplast topoisomerase II, accumulate periodically during the cell cycle in the trypanosomatid Crithidia fasciculata. An octamer consensus sequence, CAUAGAAG, present in the 5' untranslated regions (UTR) of these mRNAs is required for periodic accumulation of the TOP2 and RPA1 transcripts and also for binding of a nuclear factor(s) to the 5' UTR RNAs of these genes. We show here that insertion of multiple (six) copies of this octamer sequence (6x octamer) into the 5' UTR of a reporter gene confers periodic accumulation on its transcript. Competition experiments and UV cross-linking studies show that the 6x octamer RNA and TOP2 5' UTR RNA bind to the same nuclear factor(s). Single-nucleotide substitutions in the 6x octamer that abolish the RNA gel shift also prevent cyclic accumulation of the reporter gene transcript. A protein termed cycling element binding protein, purified by affinity chromatography using 6x octamer RNA as a ligand, binds to RNAs containing wild-type octamers and not to those with mutant octamers. These results define a small sequence element in C. fasciculata mRNAs required for their cell cycle regulation and report the identification and purification of a putative regulatory protein that binds specifically to these elements.

5' Untranslated Regions↗

Sequential roles for Fgf4, En1 and Fgf8 in specification and regionalisation of the midbrain.

Experiments involving tissue recombinations have implicated both early vertical and later planar signals in the specification and polarisation of the midbrain. Here we investigate the role of fibroblast growth factors in regulating these processes in the avian embryo. We show that Fgf4 is expressed in the notochord anterior to Hensen's node before transcripts for the earliest molecular marker of midbrain tissue in the avian embryo, En1, are detected. The presence of notochord is required for the expression of En1 in neural plate explants in vitro and FGF4 mimics this effect of notochord tissue. Subsequently, a second member of the fibroblast growth factor family, Fgf8, is expressed in the isthmus in a manner consistent with it providing a polarising signal for the developing midbrain. Using a retroviral vector to express En1 ectopically, we show that En1 can induce Fgf8 expression in midbrain and posterior diencephalon. Results of the introduction of FGF8 protein into the anterior midbrain or posterior diencephalon are consistent with it being at least part of the isthmic activity which can repolarise the former tissue and respecify the latter to a midbrain fate. However, the ability of FGF8 to induce expression of genes which have earlier onsets of expression than Fgf8 itself, namely En1 and Pax2, strongly suggests that the normal function of FGF8 is in maintaining patterns of gene expression in posterior midbrain. Finally, we provide evidence that FGF8 also provides mitogenic stimulation during avian midbrain development.

Animals↗

Nuleclear extracts of Crithidia fasciculata contain a factor(s) that binds to the 5'-untranslated regions of TOP2 and RPA1 mRNAs containing sequences required for their cell cycle regulation.

The Crithidia fasciculata replication protein A gene, RPA1, and topoisomerase II gene, TOP2, encode proteins involved in the replication of nuclear and mitochondrial DNA, respectively. Transcripts of both genes accumulate periodically during the cell cycle and attain their maximum levels just before S phase. Octamer consensus sequences within the 5'-untranslated region (UTR) of both genes have been shown to be necessary for cycling of these transcripts. Using a gel retardation assay, we show here that nuclear extracts of C. fasciculata contain a protein factor(s) that binds specifically to RNA from 5'-UTRs of TOP2 and RPA1 genes. In addition, mutations in the consensus octamer sequence abolish binding to the RNA in both cases. Ultraviolet cross-linking using a radiolabeled TOP2 5'-UTR probe identified proteins with apparent molecular masses of 74 and 37 kDa in the RNA-protein complex. Nuclear extracts prepared from synchronized cells show that the binding activity varies during the cell cycle in parallel with TOP2 and RPA1 mRNA levels. These results suggest that the cell cycle regulation of the mRNA levels of trypanosomatid DNA replication genes may be mediated by binding of specific proteins to conserved sequences in the 5'-UTR of their transcripts.

Animals↗

Adaptive response to low dose of EMS or MMS in human peripheral blood lymphocytes.

Human peripheral blood lymphocytes stimulated in vitro for 6 hr were exposed to a low (conditioning) dose of ethyl methanesulfonate (EMS; 1.5 x 10(-4) M) or methyl methanesulfonate (MMS; 1.5 x 10(-5) M). After 6 hr, the cells were treated with a high (challenging) concentration of the same agent (1.5 x 10(-3) M EMS or 1.5 x 10(-4) M MMS). The cells that received both conditioning and challenging doses became less sensitive to the induction of sister chromatid exchanges (SCEs) than those which did not receive the pretreatment with EMS or MMS. They responded with lower frequencies of SCEs. This suggests that conditioning dose of EMS or MMS has offered the lymphocytes to have decreased SCEs. This led to the realization that pre-exposure of lymphocytes to low dose can cause the induction of repair activity. This is a clear indication of the existence of adaptive response induced by alkylating agents whether it is ethylating or methylating in human lymphocytes in vitro.

Adaptation, Physiological↗

Modified BFM protocol for childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia: a retrospective analysis.

Childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) has a 5-year disease-free survival (DFS) of more than 70%. This fact is not reflected in developing countries due to the lack of proper supportive care. A modified version of the standard Berlin-Frankfurt-Munich (BFM) protocol for pediatric ALL was developed to achieve balance between toxicity and favorable response rates. Modification included a dose reduction of asparaginase and methotrexate during the consolidation and reinduction phase. Forty-two patients younger than 15 years of age were put on the modified BFM protocol between November 1990 and November 1993. Thirty-nine patients were 2-10 years of age and 3 were older than 10 years. Male to female ratio was 3.2:1. 71.4% had L1 and 28.6% had L2 morphology. Univariate analysis factors revealed central nervous system (CNS) involvement and late complete remission (CR) during induction as poor prognostic factors. In multivariate analysis, CNS disease (P < 0.0083) was the only prognostic variable for prolonged DFS. All patients went into CR. Eleven patients have relapsed. Life table analysis of these patients shows a 59.4% probability of overall survival (OS) and a 52.5% probability of DFS at 48 months.

Adolescent↗

Expression of Fgf-3 in relation to hindbrain segmentation, otic pit position and pharyngeal arch morphology in normal and retinoic acid-exposed mouse embryos.

The gene Fgf-3 is expressed in rhombomeres 5 and 6 of the hindbrain and has been functionally implicated in otic development. We describe new sites of expression of this gene in mouse embryos in the forebrain, the midbrain-hindbrain junction region, rhombomere boundaries, a cranial surface ectodermal domain that includes the otic placode, and in the most recently formed somite. In the early hindbrain, high levels of Fgf-3 transcripts are present in rhombomere 4. The surface ectodermal domain at first (day 8 1/2) extends laterally from rhombomeres 4 and 5 (prorhombomere B), in which neuroepithelial levels of expression are highest, to the second pharyngeal arch ventrally; at day 9, when the region of highest level of neuroepithelial Fgf-3 expression is in rhombomeres 5 and 6, the dorsal origin of the surface ectodermal domain is also at this level, extending obliquely to the otic placode and the second arch. The initially high level of Fgf-3 transcripts in the otic placode is downregulated as the placode invaginates to form the otic pit. Fgf-3 is a good marker for the epithelium of pharyngeal arches 2 and 3, and our in situ hybridization results confirm the dual identity of the apparently fused first and second arches in some retinoic acid-exposed embryos, and the fusion of the first arch with the maxillary region in others. Correlation between Fgf-3 expression and morphological pattern in craniofacial tissues of normal and retinoic acid-exposed embryos indicates that prorhombomere B, the second arch and the otic ectoderm represent a cranial segment whose structural integrity is maintained when hindbrain morphology and pharyngeal arch morphology are altered. Comparison of normal Fgf-3 expression domains with those of Fgf-4 and with the phenotype of Fgf-3-deficient mutant embryos suggests that there is some functional redundancy between Fgf-3 and Fgf-4 in otic induction and second arch development.

Abnormalities, Drug-Induced↗

Sequences within the 5' untranslated region regulate the levels of a kinetoplast DNA topoisomerase mRNA during the cell cycle.

Gene expression in trypanosomatids appears to be regulated largely at the posttranscriptional level and involves maturation of mRNA precursors by trans splicing of a 39-nucleotide miniexon sequence to the 5' end of the mRNA and cleavage and polyadenylation at the 3' end of the mRNA. To initiate the identification of sequences involved in the periodic expression of DNA replication genes in trypanosomatids, we have mapped splice acceptor sites in the 5' flanking region of the TOP2 gene, which encodes the kinetoplast DNA topoisomerase, and have carried out deletion analysis of this region on a plasmid-encoded TOP2 gene. Block deletions within the 5' untranslated region (UTR) identified two regions (-608 to -388 and -387 to -186) responsible for periodic accumulation of the mRNA. Deletion of one or the other of these sequences had no effect on periodic expression of the mRNA, while deletion of both regions resulted in constitutive expression of the mRNA throughout the cell cycle. Subcloning of these sequences into the 5' UTR of a construct lacking both regions of the TOP2 5' UTR has shown that an octamer consensus sequence present in the 5' UTR of the TOP2, RPA1, and DHFR-TS mRNAs is required for normal cycling of the TOP2 mRNA. Mutation of the consensus octamer sequence in the TOP2 5' UTR in a plasmid construct containing only a single consensus octamer and that shows normal cycling of the plasmid-encoded TOP2 mRNA resulted in substantial reduction of the cycling of the mRNA level. These results imply a negative regulation of TOP2 mRNA during the cell cycle by a mechanism involving redundant elements containing one or more copies of a conserved octamer sequence within the 5' UTR of TOP2 mRNA.

Animals↗

Inducible protective processes in animal systems: adaptive response to a low dose of methyl methanesulfonate in mouse bone marrow cells.

To investigate the induction of adaptive response (inducible protective processes) in mitotic cells of Swiss albino mouse, a monofunctional alkylating agent methyl methanesulfonate (MMS) was employed. When the animals treated with a low dose of 50 mg/kg body weight were challenged with a subsequent high (challenging) dose of 150 mg/kg body weight, after different time lags (2,5,8 or 10 hr), the yield of chromosomal aberrations in bone marrow cells was found to be significantly reduced compared to the additive effects of both conditioning and challenging doses. It seems, therefore, that the low dose of MMS employed has made the cells less sensitive against further clastogenic effect of challenge dose of MMS. The data clearly suggest that the phenomenon of adaptive response to methylating agents can be encountered in in vivo mammalian cells. Furthermore, it is also observed that ethylating agent EMS is a poor inducer of adaptive response than its corresponding methylating agent MMS in the bone marrow cells of mouse.

Adaptation, Physiological↗

A role for FGF-8 in the initiation and maintenance of vertebrate limb bud outgrowth.

BACKGROUND: The outgrowth of the vertebrate limb bud is the result of a reciprocal interaction between the mesenchyme and a specialized region of the ectoderm, the apical ectodermal ridge (AER), which overlies it. Signals emanating from the AER act to maintain the underlying mesenchyme, called the progress zone, in a highly proliferative and undifferentiated state. Removal of the AER results in the cessation of limb bud growth, thus causing limb truncation. The best candidates for this AER-derived signal are members of the fibroblast growth factor (FGF) family, in particular FGF-4, which can maintain limb bud outgrowth following removal of the AER. However, FGF-4 is only expressed after considerable outgrowth has occurred and a well-developed limb bud has formed, and then only in the posterior part of the AER. Likewise, the other FGFs studied to date are not candidates for this activity. RESULTS: We report evidence that a recently identified member of this family, FGF-8, is expressed in the ectoderm of the prospective limb territory prior to morphological outgrowth of the limb bud in both mouse and chick. Thereafter, expression is maintained throughout the AER during limb development. We have produced and purified the FGF-8 protein, and shown that it will substitute for the AER in maintaining limb bud outgrowth in mouse embryos from which the AER has been surgically removed. FGF-8 does not, however, maintain expression of the sonic hedgehog gene. CONCLUSIONS: These results indicate that FGF-8 is an AER-derived mitogen that stimulates limb bud outgrowth. Moreover, our data suggest that FGF-8 may also be an ectodermally derived mitogen that stimulates the onset of limb bud outgrowth (budding) in the absence of a morphological AER, and indicate the possible involvement of FGF-8 in the establishment of the limb field.

Amino Acid Sequence↗