Premature ovarian failure associated with a small terminal Xq deletion: narrowing the POF1 region down to Xq27.2/Xq27.3-qter.
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Biomedical subjects
Publications and source records attributed to S Palm.
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OBJECTIVE: Regional anaesthesia is recommended for caesarean section in obese women. With regard to this aspect anaesthesia practice in the obstetrics department of the University Hospital Kiel was evaluated retrospectively. METHODS: Data from 1,461 consecutive caesarean sections were evaluated. Pregnant women were subgrouped according to their prepartal body mass index (BMI). Statistics were performed by the chi(2)-test and the Wilcoxon and Mann-Whitney U-test, with a significance threshold of p<0.05. RESULTS: Of the pregnant women who underwent a caesarean section 27% were obese (BMI 30.0-34.9) and 15% were extremely obese (BMI > or =35). Spinal anaesthesia was performed most frequently in 47% with an uptrend in severely obese parturients. All other aspects investigated were independent of BMI. Vasoactive drugs were given less during general anaesthesia than in regional anaesthesia (3 vs. 54%). APGAR values were significantly better with regional anaesthesia, but perioperative complaints of distress were more common. Spinal anaesthesia was favoured by patients and staff in the postoperative survey ( p<0.001). CONCLUSION: Obesity is a common risk factor in caesarean section anaesthesia. Spinal anaesthesia can be recommended even for obese parturients.
The supportive breeding programme for sea trout (Salmo trutta) in the River Dalälven, Sweden, is based on a sea-ranched hatchery stock of local origin that has been kept 'closed' to the immigration of wild genes since the late 1960s (about seven generations). In spite of an apparent potential for substantial uni directional gene flow from sea-ranched to wild (naturally produced) trout, phenotypic differences with a presumed genetic basis have previously been observed between the two 'stocks'. Likewise, two previous studies of allozyme and mitochondrial DNA variation based on a single year of sampling have indicated genetic differentiation. In the present study we used microsatellite and allozyme data collected over four consecutive years, and tested for the existence of overall genetic stock divergence while accounting for temporal heterogeneity. Statistical analyses of allele frequency variation (F-statistics) and multilocus genotypes (assignment tests) revealed that wild and sea-ranched trout were significantly different in three of four years, whereas no overall genetic divergence could be found when temporal heterogeneity among years within stocks was accounted for. On the basis of estimates of effective population size in the two stocks, and of FST between them, we also assessed the level of gene flow from sea-ranched to wild trout to be approximately 80% per generation (with a lower confidence limit of approximately 20%). The results suggest that the reproductive success of hatchery and naturally produced trout may be quite similar in the wild, and that the genetic characteristics of the wild stock are largely determined by introgressed genes from sea-ranched fish.
OBJECTIVE: Compared to other procedures, gynaecological laparoscopies are followed rather frequently by postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). Therefore, we investigated the prophylactic antiemetic efficacy of metoclopramide and droperidol under general anaesthesia with isoflurane (part 1). Given the rather unsatisfying results of this monoprophylaxis we examined the effects of a quintuple prophylaxis in this setting (part 2). METHODS: Part 1: Following ethical committee approval and written informed consent 120 patients scheduled for elective gynaecological laparoscopy were allocated prospectively, randomly and observer-blinded to the following groups: group P (placebo): 2 ml NaCl 0.9 %, group D: 2.5 mg droperidol, group M: 10 mg metoclopramide. Part 2: Subsequently 50 patients scheduled for elective gynaecological laparoscopy and bearing a minimum risk of 25 % to experience postoperative vomiting were allocated prospectively and blinded to the observers to a quintuple prophylaxis group: group X: 10 mg metoclopramide, 2.5 mg droperidol, 12.5 mg dolasetron, 62.5 mg dimenhydrinate, 8mg dexamethasone. Part 1 and 2: Anaesthesia was induced with fentanyl, etomidate and succinycholine and maintained with isoflurane/N2O, fentanyl and cisatracurium. The antiemetics were applied intravenously 20 min prior to end of surgery. RESULTS: Within the first 24 h postoperatively vomiting occurred more frequently in group P (44 %) compared to group D (21 %, p = 0.046) and group M (33 %, n. s.). Nausea also occurred more frequently in group P (61 %) compared to group D (24 %, p = 0.003) and group M (48 %, n. s.). Intensity of nausea was reduced both in group D and group M compared to group P (p = 0.03). Likewise the requirements for antiemetics as a rescue medication were reduced in group D (p = 0.02) and group M (p = 0.047) compared to group P. In group X no patient suffered from postoperative vomiting, no patient required a rescue antiemetic. CONCLUSIONS: Whereas droperidol provides a reliable antiemetic effect, the prophylactic effect of metoclopramide is rather uncertain. Therefore, further studies regarding a dose response-relationship for metoclopramide are deemed necessary. Since a monoprophylaxis with droperidol or metoclopramide failed to attain a satisfying PONV-prophylaxis in patients at high risk for PONV, the quintuple antiemetic combination might be an effective and safe solution.
BACKGROUND: In 1994, 5 % of a total of 25 718 examinations and 7 % of all 4630 B-mode sonograms performed in the Radiology Department, University of Cologne was classified as not indicated. In light of these results, the health care policy guidelines for sonographic indications have been amended. PURPOSE: The aim of this study was to establish the current rate of non-indicated sonographic examinations performed in routine diagnostics by radiology departments at university hospitals, to determine the reasons for such over-diagnosis and identify which regulatory mechanisms can be implemented to prevent his. METHOD: We counted the number of 1) B-mode and 2) color-flow Doppler ultrasound imaging procedures carried out in patients who had had no change in symptoms within the previous 4 weeks or who were scheduled without reference to an existing sonogram (double examinations). 3) The reasons for over-diagnosis were analyzed. 4) The 1994 survey was repeated in 2000 with an identical protocol and 5) additionally, a modified survey of the diagnostic questions was conducted. RESULTS: 1) Out of 4,119 patients presenting for the first time to receive a B-mode sonogram, 443 prior sonograms (11 %), 305 CT scans (7 %) and 57 MRI scans (1 %) were documented. 2) Double sonograms were carried out in 6 % of the 1,118 patients presenting for the first time for color-flow Doppler ultrasounds and in 16 % of the 651 patients assigned to receive catheter angiographies with arterial color-flow Doppler. 2) 41 out of 55 (75 %) prior sonograms from non-university settings stated by 94 surgery patients were listed in the medical records. 36 out of 43 (84 %) prior sonograms from the university hospital were repeated in the same patients despite the fact that the medical report with the findings was available. None of the 48 sonograms indicated to confirm a plausible finding yielded any information that was additionally relevant to therapy. 4) In the period April - June, 2000, 12 % of all 15,921 tests and interventions, 26 % of 3,569 B-mode sonograms and 58 % of 1,033 abdominal sonograms performed in adults were classified as having not been indicated. 5) Staging and follow-up were stated as the most common reasons that a sonography was carried out in 46 % of the 1,017 adults who were given B-mode sonograms conducted from Jan - Mar, 2000 and comprised 62 % of the 410 sonograms classified as not or probably not medically indicated. CONCLUSION: The results showed that a multidisciplinary consensus was required to establish the diagnostic value of sonographic procedures. Therefore, this research group drafted a hospital-internal interdisciplinary guideline for "abdominal transcutaneous B-mode sonography in oncological questions".
BACKGROUND: Propofol-sufentanil anaesthesia has become popular during cardiac surgery for its titrability and short recovery time. Avoidance of awareness is a major goal during cardiac surgery. We therefore investigated the dose-response relationship of propofol and cortical responses (mid-latency auditory evoked potentials, MLAEP). METHODS: One hundred patients undergoing cardiac surgery were investigated. Basic anaesthesia was performed with sufentanil (4.5 microg kg(-1) h(-1)) / flunitrazepam (9 microg kg(-1) h(-1)) infusion (control group); the other groups received in addition a loading dose of propofol 2 mg kg(-1) and a maintainance infusion of 1-3.5 mg kg(-1) h(-1). MLAEP were evaluated by using Pa/Nb-amplitudes and Nb-latencies. Haemodynamics were monitored by ECG, arterial blood pressure and cardiac function with pulmonary artery catheterization. RESULTS: In the control group, median amplitude of MLAEP decreased by 50% with a wide range, but were detectable in >90% of patients throughout surgery. Propofol suppressed amplitude Pa/Nb of MLAEP dose dependently. With 3.5 mg kg(-1) h(-1) amplitudes disappeared in >40% of patients throughout cardiac surgery. Median Nb-latencies increased in the control group from 44 to a range from 50 to 60 ms. In groups with propofol >2 mg kg(-1) h(-1), Nb-latencies, detectable in the patients without complete suppression of MLAEP, increased to median 60 ms. Haemodynamic parameters and cardiac function did not differ among the groups. The use of vasopressors was not increased even with the highest propofol dose used. CONCLUSION: The dose-response effect of propofol on auditory evoked potentials reveals that combining a loading dose of 2 mg kg-1 with a consecutive infusion of 3.5 mg kg(-1) h(-1) significantly suppresses MLAEP during cardiac surgery. Thus, auditory information may not be processed and awareness with recall becomes unlikely.
We have used the up-and-down allocation technique to assess the relative analgesic potencies of epidural ropivacaine alone and ropivacaine combined with sufentanil 0.75 microg.ml-1 in 42 women requesting epidural analgesia in the first stage of labour. Parturients were randomly allocated to one of the two epidural solutions in a double-blind manner. The concentration of local anaesthetic was determined by the response of the previous parturient: an effective concentration (pain < or = 10 mm on a 10-cm visual analogue pain score within 30 min) resulted in a 0.01% decrease in the concentration of ropivacaine for the next parturient, an ineffective concentration resulted in a 0.01% increase. Minimum local analgesic concentration of ropivacaine alone was 0.13% (95% CI 0.12-0.13%) compared with 0.09% (95% CI 0.08-0.1%) for ropivacaine with sufentanil (p < 0.00001).
Microsurgical epididymal sperm aspiration (MESA) combined with intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) represents a great advance in the therapy of non-reconstructable obstructive azoospermia. For procedure synchronization, a great number of organizational facilities are needed. Intentional cryopreservation of the aspirate may reduce these problems, therefore the aim of this study was to analyse the amount and quality of aspirate fluid obtained by means of MESA and the quality of the vials after thawing. Furthermore, the available cryopreserved straws were calculated. A total of 93 consecutive MESA procedures were performed and epididymal spermatozoa were obtained in 88 patients. Mean sperm concentration was 40.9 x 10(6) spermatozoa/ml. Global and progressive motility were 24.8 and 7.5% respectively. In one-third of the aspirates, no progressive motile spermatozoa were found. The mean number of straws available was 7.6. In 33 ICSI cycles with frozen-thawed epididymal spermatozoa, a pregnancy rate of 42.4% was achieved. In conclusion, these data show that enough spermatozoa are available for various ICSI cycles following a single MESA procedure in men with non-reconstructable obstructive azoospermia. Furthermore, ICSI with cryopreserved spermatozoa leads to excellent pregnancy rates
INTRODUCTION: Reports about an increased incidence of infection with facultative intracellular microorganisms suggest a depression of the macrophage/monocyte system. This explosive increase in oxidative metabolism can be measured by chemiluminescence. The aim of the present study was to investigate the influence of morphine and its metabolites morphine-3 (M-3-G) and 6-glucuronide (M-6-G) on the respiratory burst of the peripheral mononuclear cells (PCM). To explain the mechanism of the effect of morphine the antagonist naloxone was used. Furthermore, the effect was compared with that of bupivacaine and propranolol, known as drugs that stabilize the cell membranes. METHODS: PMC were isolated from the blood of healthy young men by Ficol hypaque centrifugation. Four samples of 2 x 10(5) cells were incubated for at 37 degrees C and 10% CO(2) with either morphine, naloxone, bupivacaine, propranolol, M-3-G or M-6-G. After stimulation with oponised zymosan A, the lucigenin-dependent chemiluminescence was measured (n=8) in a biolumat (Berthold). STATISTICS: Wilcoxon matched pairs (significance level p<0.05). RESULTS: Morphine inhibited the phagocytic activity of PMC only in concentrations >10(-7) mol/l. The metabolites M-3-G and M-6-G were considered to be similar based on tests using n=3. Naloxone itself significantly influences the emission of light solely in the high concentration of 10(-4) mol/l. Naloxone (10(-4) mol/l)+morphine(10(-5) mol/l) caused a greater inhibition than either of the substances alone. In comparison, the decreased chemiluminescence of morphine (10(-6) mol/l) was antagonized by naloxone (10(-5) mol/l). Naloxone in the same concentration was ineffective. The membrane stabilization caused by bupivacaine and propranolol did not change the chemiluminescence activity. CONCLUSION: Morphine had a decreasing effect on the respiratory burst of PCM only in concentrations that the human body reaches where renal clearance is reduced. In this situation the metabolites of morphine accumulate more than morphine itself and seem to have a similar effect. The weakening of phagocytosis might possibly be a direct effect of morphine and its metabolites. These investigations suggest that this phenomenon may be receptor dependent: the effect could be antagonized by naloxone, but naloxone itself caused a depression in high concentrations. In comparison the nonspecific stabilization of the membranes showed no such effect.
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UNLABELLED: Opioids such as morphine are the mainstay of acute and chronic pain treatment. The purpose of this study was to investigate the immunosuppressive effects of morphine in patients with pain syndromes. We investigated 10 patients with chronic pain syndromes undergoing treatment with oral sustained-release morphine (30-240 mg/d) before and after 1,4, and 12 wk of treatment compared with healthy control subjects without morphine treatment. Immunological variables of the cellular and humoral immune axis showed that 1) total lymphocyte counts and the distribution of lymphocyte subpopulations, including helper T-cell/suppressor cytotoxic T-cell ratios (CD4/CD8 ratios), did not change compared with baseline or healthy control subjects; 2) proliferation of peripheral mononuclear cells (PMC) was not impaired by morphine treatment; 3) interleukin 2 production increased after 4 wk of treatment with morphine; and 4) immunoglobulin (Ig) production was reduced before initiation of therapy in pain patients and decreased further during morphine treatment, whereas Ig concentrations in the circulation remained at normal levels. These results indicate that treatment with oral, sustained-release morphine does not have a suppressive effect on overall PMC function. On the other hand, Ig production was impaired in patients with chronic pain and was further suppressed by morphine. Whether this suppression of humoral immune function has a clinical impact on the immune system as a whole remains to be determined. IMPLICATIONS: Treatment of patients with chronic pain with oral, sustained-release morphine does not influence cellular immune function, but it suppresses the already attenuated production of immunoglobulins.
Morphine is suggested to influence immune function by activation of hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. Thus, we investigated 8 pain patients prior to and during prolonged oral treatment with 30-240 mg of sustained release morphine for plasma concentrations of adrenocorticotropic hormone and serum concentrations of cortisol. Results revealed that pain patients at basal status had elevated cortisol concentrations. Hormone concentrations measured after 1, 4 and 12 weeks of morphine treatment were significantly decreased, not normalized, but at very low values. Since these data, even in the absence of clinical symptoms, might have been indicative for adrenal insufficiency, a corticotropin-releasing hormone test was performed in 2 patients. After injection of 100 micrograms of human corticotropin-releasing hormone. ACTH and cortisol concentrations increased sufficiently. In conclusion, even though low hormonal concentrations were observed in pain patients during morphine treatment, pituitary and adrenal stimulation of the endocrine axis remained intact.
Fourteen healthy male subjects were studied under resting conditions for 24 or 48 h. The 24-h variations of ACTH and cortisol with peaks in the morning were confirmed. Interleukin-2 release was profoundly reduced at 8: 00. A cosine function could be fitted to lymphocyte subpopulations including populations such as T helper-memory cells (CD4+/CDw29) and HLA-DR-bearing cells displaying peak values during the night and minimal values at 9:00. Numbers of natural killer cells (CD57) were not correlated to other cell populations and no rhythm could be detected. Interleukin- 1 beta was detectable in some plasma samples only with an interleukin- 1 ELISA kit (Quantakine HS(R)), but neither a 24-h rhythm nor reproducible results could be obtained for day 1 and 2 of the study. We conclude that there might be a temporal relation between the parameters analyzed: Higher levels of endogenous cortisol in the morning hours probably inhibit the cellular interleukin-2 synthesis and are responsible for an enhanced migration of lymphocytes from the blood into the tissues of the reticuloendothelial system. These results might be indicative of a circadian organization of the immune system which may play a role in both physiological and pathological functioning.
Opioids have been reported in the literature to have immunosuppressive properties. Thus, we investigated the influence of morphine, morphine-3-glucuronide and morphine-6-glucuronide in vitro on phytohemagglutinin-stimulated proliferation of peripheral mononuclear cells from healthy humans. Furthermore, the effects of a 1-week treatment with morphine in a range of 30-240 mg/day on proliferation of lymphocytes from patients with chronic pain syndromes were evaluated. In addition, human peripheral mononuclear cell membranes were tested for specific opioid radioligand binding. The results show that i) morphine and its main metabolites do not influence mitogen-induced T-cell proliferation, ii) treatment of patients with sustained release morphine for 1 week did not impair the lymphocyte proliferative response, and iii) no specific binding of mu-, delta- and kappa-radioligands could be demonstrated to membranes of peripheral lymphocytes obtained from healthy humans. These results do not indicate an impairment of phytohemagglutinin-induced T-cell proliferation during pain treatment with sustained release morphine.
The influence of a 1-hour neuropsychological stress test on the distribution of lymphocyte subpopulations and on plasma catecholamine levels was investigated in 18 patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and 14 sex- and age-matched controls. Despite significant increases in lymphocyte counts in both groups, lymphocyte subsets did not change accordingly. A wide scattering of catecholamine levels in plasma before and after stress was observed. Plasma levels of lymphokines such as interleukin (IL)-1 beta and IL-6 could not be detected in RA patients. Enzyme immunoassay of markers of lymphocyte activation such as HLA-DR and cell-bound IL-2 receptor showed only a significant elevation of HLA-DR marked cells in RA patients at baseline. Significantly higher amounts of the soluble IL-2 receptor were detected in patients with RA before the stress test, but stress testing did not alter this parameter. In conclusion, lymphocyte activation in RA and a defect in the expression of IL-2 receptor on the cell surface of lymphocytes were confirmed in the present study.
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BACKGROUND: The aim of this study was to perform various 211At irradiations of importance for the evaluation of 211At-radioimmunotherapy, and compare the effect with that of low linear energy transfer (LET) radiation. MATERIALS AND METHODS: All irradiations were performed on low-concentration single-cell suspensions. Growth assays using 96-well plates were used to estimate apparent cell survival. Centrifuge tube filters were used to estimate the cell uptake and binding of 211At. RESULTS: A relative biological effect (RBE) of 12 +/- 2 (Colo-205) and 5.3 +/- 0.7 (OVCAR-3) was found from 211At-albumin irradiations. There was a 174 +/- 28 times higher free 211At concentration in the cell fraction than in the surrounding medium. For 211At-MAb, an 8,000-30,000 times higher concentration in the cell fraction was achieved, compared to the medium. Corrected for the uptake, an average of 31 +/- 2 ([211At]-astatine) or 26 +/- 5 ([211At]-MAb) decays per cell were required for 37% survival of Colo-205 cells. An average of 19 +/- 3 decays ([211At]-astatine) were required per OVCAR-3 cell. CONCLUSIONS: Cell uptake and binding of 211At was unexpectedly high, possibly favouring its therapeutic use. The binding is probably to the cell surface. The RBE is 5.3 +/- 0.7 for OVCAR-3 and 12 +/- 2 for Colo-205 cells.