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Biomedical subjects

S S Patel

Publications and source records attributed to S S Patel.

At least 55 records · Page 3Linked to original sources

Selection, identification, and genetic analysis of random mutants in the cloned primase/helicase gene of bacteriophage T7.

T7 gene 4 specifies two overlapping proteins 4A, a 566-amino acid primase/helicase, and 4B, a 503-amino acid helicase whose initiation codon is the 64th codon of the 4A protein. The 4A' gene, which has a leucine codon replacing the 4B initiation codon, specifies a single 566-amino acid protein that can provide the primase and helicase functions required for normal T7 growth. We selected N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine mutants in the cloned 4A' gene that no longer support the growth of a phage that completely lacks gene 4. Genetic mapping of the 76 mutations found them to be distributed throughout the protein, including both the N-terminal and C-terminal halves of the molecule thought to represent primase and helicase domains, respectively. Complementation tests with partially and completely defective phage showed that all but five of the mutants lacked helicase function but retained primase function. The other five, which lacked both functions, all made short proteins, including one missing only 60 amino acids. No mutations lacked only primase function, and none mapped within the first 105 amino acids, which includes the 63-amino acid region unique to 4A that contains elements required to recognize primase sites. Forty-six mutations were sequenced and included 27 missense mutations affecting 25 amino acids. Many mutations in the N-terminal half of the protein affected its solubility in cell extracts. Mutations in the C-terminal half clustered in or near five helicase consensus sequences. Biochemical analysis of nine of the mutant proteins is described in the accompanying paper (Washington, M. T., Rosenberg, A. H., Griffin, K., Studier, F. W., and Patel, S. S. (1996) J. Biol. Chem. 271, 26825-26834).

Amino Acid Sequence↗

Cooperative interactions of nucleotide ligands are linked to oligomerization and DNA binding in bacteriophage T7 gene 4 helicases.

The equilibrium nucleotide binding and oligomerization of bacteriophage T7 gene 4 helicases have been investigated using thymidine 5'-triphosphate (dTTP), deoxythymidine 5'-(beta, gamma-methylenetriphosphate)(dTMP-PCP), thymidine 5'-diphosphate (dTDP), adenosine 5'-triphosphate (ATP), and adenosine 5'-O-(3-thiotriphosphate) (ATP gamma S). In the presence of nucleotide ligands, T7 helicases self-assemble into hexamers with six potential nucleotide binding sites that are nonequivalent both in the absence and in the presence of single-stranded DNA. All nucleotides tested bind with high affinity to three sites (K(d) = 5 x 10(-6) M, dTTP; 6 x 10(-7) M, dTMP-PCP; 4 x 10(-6) M, dTDP; 3 x 10(-5) M, ATP; 2 x 10(-6) M, ATP gamma S), while binding to the remaining sites is undetectable. Interestingly, nucleotide binding to the high-affinity sites exhibits positive cooperativity which is sensitive to protein concentration. This effect is a result of ligand binding-linked oligomerization wherein helicase oligomer equilibrium changes as a function of both nucleotide and protein concentration. A study of DNA binding shows that 1-2 NTPs bound per hexamer are sufficient for stoichiometric interaction between the helicase and DNA. Thus, the ring-shaped helicase hexamers assemble around DNA with one, two, or three NTPs bound to each hexamer. This study also examines the preferred use of dTTP for T7 helicase-catalyzed DNA unwinding by comparison with ATP, the more commonly used nucleotide ligand. ATP binds to the helicase with 6-fold weaker affinity than dTTP and promotes hexamerization as well as DNA binding. Nevertheless, DNA unwinding with ATP is at least 100-fold slower than with dTTP. Thus, the difference in ATP and dTTP utilization probably lies in a highly specific step in the coupling of NTP hydrolysis to DNA unwinding.

Bacteriophage T7↗

Use of the ganciclovir implant in the treatment of recurrent cytomegalovirus retinitis.

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the efficacy of the ganciclovir implant in the treatment of recurrent cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis. METHODS: Patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and recurrent CMV retinitis were evaluated for entry into the study. A ganciclovir implant was inserted in 91 eyes of 70 patients between October 1992 and October 1995. The efficacy of the implant and visual results were retrospectively reviewed. RESULTS: Fifty-three (76%) of 70 eyes had inactive CMV retinitis 1 month postoperatively (positive initial response). Twenty-one eyes of 19 patients had less than 1 month of follow-up. Nineteen (36%) of 53 eyes developed recurrent CMV retinitis. The median time to recurrence for those patients with a positive initial response was 7 months. Forty-eight (84%) of 57 patients with follow-up longer than 1 month after implant insertion in the first eye received systemic anti-CMV medication during the study. The cumulative risk for developing a retinal detachment was 23% at 6 months following implant insertion. Other complications included vitreous hemorrhage, hyphema, and suprachoroidal implantation of the device. CONCLUSION: The ganciclovir implant is effective as an adjunct to continued systemic therapy in those patients with recurrent CMV retinitis.

AIDS-Related Opportunistic Infections↗

Cytomegalovirus papillitis in patients with acquired immune deficiency syndrome. Visual prognosis of patients treated with ganciclovir and/or foscarnet.

BACKGROUND: Of those patients with acquired immune deficiency syndrome in whom cytomegaloviral retinitis develops, cytomegaloviral papillitis reportedly develops in up to 4% as well. Although occasionally patients have a good visual outcome, the majority have a poor visual prognosis, with a visual acuity of 20/200 or worse, even with treatment. METHODS: To evaluate the effects of prolonged induction with foscarnet or ganciclovir on the visual prognosis of cytomegalovirus (CMV) papillitis, the records of 22 patients seen between 1990 and 1995 at the Los Angeles County-University of Southern California Eye Clinic were reviewed. Papillitis was defined as greater than 270 degrees of disc edema/blurring of the disc margins as seen on direct examination and on color fundus photographs. RESULTS: Eighteen patients with a mean initial visual acuity of 20/69 (range, 20/ 15-20/400) were treated with induction doses of intravenous ganciclovir (range, 5-7.5 mg/kg twice daily) or foscarnet (range, 60-90 mg/kg twice or 3 times daily) for a mean of 3.3 weeks. The mean follow-up period was 4.8 months (range, 1-13 months). These patients maintained a mean final visual acuity of 20/68 (range, 20/ 25-20/400) with greater than 90% resolution of the papillitis. The remaining four patients had poor outcomes (visual acuity < 20/400) because of progressive CMV papillitis or retinitis. The median survival time was 4.5 months from the diagnosis of papillitis, but 7 months from the onset of CMV ocular infection. CONCLUSION: Patients with CMV papillitis have good visual prognosis when managed with high and prolonged doses of intravenous foscarnet and/or ganciclovir.

AIDS-Related Opportunistic Infections↗

Latanoprost. A review of its pharmacological properties, clinical efficacy and tolerability in the management of primary open-angle glaucoma and ocular hypertension.

Latanoprost is an ester prodrug analogue of prostaglandin F2 alpha which effectively reduces intraocular pressure (IOP) by increasing uveoscleral outflow rather than altering conventional trabeculo-canalicular) aqueous outflow. The IOP-lowering effect of latanoprost lasts for 20 to 24 hours after a single dose, which allows a single daily dosage regimen. Data from 4 randomised double-masked multicentre studies indicate that a once daily dose of topical latanoprost 0.005% is as effective as timolol 0.5% twice daily in the treatment of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma or ocular hypertension. A number of studies also demonstrate that latanoprost enhances IOP-lowering effects when applied in combination with other antiglaucoma agents. Latanoprost is well tolerated with no, or barely detectable, conjunctival hyperaemia, and, unlike timolol, is not associated with systemic adverse effects. However, 3 to 10% of patients treated with latanoprost 0.005% have shown increased iris pigmentation after 3 to 4.5 months' treatment. In summary, the available data show that latanoprost is a potent IOP-lowering agent with a number of positive features including a single daily dosage regimen, a novel mechanism of action that enhances the IOP-lowering effect of contemporary agents, and a lack of systemic adverse effects. These properties suitably poise latanoprost for a prominent position in the management of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma and ocular hypertension.

Glaucoma, Open-Angle↗

Enoxacin: a reappraisal of its clinical efficacy in the treatment of genitourinary tract infections.

Enoxacin is a 6-fluoronaphthyridinone antibacterial agent with good in vitro activity against Neisseria gonorrhoeae and most Gram-negative urinary tract pathogens. It is less active in vitro against Acinetobacter spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and most Gram-positive bacteria, than against Gram-negative organisms. Enoxacin is rapidly absorbed, with a high oral bioavailability (87 to 91%). Of the absorbed dose, 44 to 56% is excreted unchanged in the urine, with peak urinary concentrations (>500 mg/L within 4 hours) remaining high (>100 mg/L) for up to 24 hours, sufficient to inhibit most urinary tract pathogens. Single (400 mg) and multiple oral dose regimens (100 to 600 mg twice or 3 times daily for 5 to 14 days) of enoxacin are as effective for the treatment of patients with complicated or uncomplicated urinary tract infections as other antibacterial agents such as amoxicillin, cefuroxime axetil, cotrimoxazole (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) or trimethoprim. Noncomparative data suggest that enoxacin is also an effective agent for the treatment of prostatitis. Single 400 mgoral doses of enoxacin produce >/- 95% bacteriological cure rates in gonococcal infections, comparable to those produced by single intramuscular doses of ceftriaxone 250 mg. Perioperative doses of oral enoxacin 200 mg provide effective prophylaxis against postoperative bacteriuria after transurethral resection of the prostate. Concomitant administration of enoxacin with a number of commonly used therapeutic agents (e.g. antacids, methylxanthines, warfarin) affects the pharmacokinetic properties of either enoxacin or the coadministered agents. Enoxacin is reasonably well tolerated, with the incidence of adverse experiences ranging from 0 to 24%. Adverse events are mainly gastrointestinal, neurological or dermatological and resolve with minimal intervention. Overall, although enoxacin exhibits a number of clinical characteristics that are similar to those of other agents for the treatment of genitourinary tract infections, the advantages offered by this agent generally do not outweigh those of alternative fluoroquinolone agents. Thus, it is likely to prove to be yet another addition to the list of agents available for the management of these infections.

Anti-Infective Agents↗

Sevoflurane. A review of its pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic properties and its clinical use in general anaesthesia.

Sevoflurane is an ether inhalation general anaesthetic agent with lower solubility in blood than isoflurane or halothane but not desflurane. The low solubility and the absence of pungency facilitate rapid mask induction; the low blood solubility also expedites "wash-out' and therefore recovery from anaesthesia. Sevoflurane produces dose-dependent CNS, cardiovascular and respiratory depressant effects that generally parallel those of isoflurane. Sevoflurane is degraded by carbon dioxide absorbents to nephrontoxic (in rats) haloalkenes, although renal toxicity has not been observed in humans. Compared with other inhalation anaesthetics, negligible quantities of carbon monoxide are generated from degradation of sevoflurane by carbon dioxide absorbents. Sevoflurane has negligible airway irritant effects, which facilitates a "smooth' induction, even in comparison with halothane in paediatric patients, and makes sevoflurane especially amenable to rapid induction of anaesthesia in adults and children. Emergence, orientation an postoperative cognitive and psychomotor function recovery of paediatric outpatients is singnificantly more rapid from sevoflurane than from halothane anaesthesia. In adult inpatients and outpatients, emergence and orientation are significantly faster after sevoflurane than after isoflurane but not desflurane anaesthesia. Other recovery parameters (e.g. times to sitting, ambulation) occur at similar times after either sevoflurane or desflurane anaesthesia. Recovery of psychomotor function occurs at generally similar times after sevoflurane, isoflurane or desflurane. Compared with propofol, sevoflurane facilitates more predictable extubation times and significantly better postoperative modified Aldrete scores in outpatients, although cognitive and psychomotor recovery occurs at similar times for both agents. As a supplement to opioid anaesthesia during coronary bypass graft surgery or in those at risk for myocardial ischaemia, sevoflurane is comparable to isoflurane. Limited data suggest that it is also as useful as isoflurane for the maintenance of anaesthesia during neurosurgical or obstetric procedures. Sevoflurane is well tolerated by adult and paediatric patients during induction of anaesthesia, with a low incidence of mild airway complications (breath-holding, coughing, excitement and laryngospasm). During rapid induction, it is particularly better tolerated than isoflurane or halothane. Sevoflurane has a lower potential for hepatic injury than halothane. Unlike methoxyflurane, sevoflurane undergoes minimal intrarenal defluorination, which may account for the lack of fluoride ion-induced nephrotoxicity in humans, despite elevated plasma fluoride levels after its use. In summary, sevoflurane provides for a rapid and smooth induction of, and recovery from, anaesthesia. These features combined with its favourable cardiovascular profile should make sevoflurane the agent of choice for inhalation induction in adult and paediatric anaesthesia. Although further clinical evaluation will define the role of this agent relative to that of propofol and desflurane, sevoflurane should also prove to be a valuable alternative anaesthetic agent for adults in both outpatient and inpatient surgery.

Adolescent↗

Ebrotidine.

Ebrotidine is the first of a new generation of H2 receptor antagonists with gastroprotective activity It stimulates epithelial cell proliferative activity and produces beneficial physicochemical changes in the gastric mucus that contribute to its gastro-protective action against ethanol-, aspirin- or stress-induced gastric mucosal damage The antisecretory properties of ebrotidine are similar to those of ranitidine and approximately 10-fold greater than those of cimetidine This drug exhibits anti-Helicobacter pylori activity that is synergistic with a number of antibacterial agents; it inhibits the urease enzyme and the proteolytic and mucolytic activities of H. pylori, and counteracts the inhibitory effects of H. pylori lipo-polysaccharide Ebrotidine is as effective as ranitidine for the treatment of patients with gastric or duodenal ulcers or erosive reflux oesophagitis Ebrotidine therapy results in significantly better ulcer healing rates than ranitidine treatment in patients who smoke.

Animals↗

A cellular pertussis vaccine (Infanrix-DTPa; SB-3). A review of its immunogenicity, protective efficacy and tolerability in the prevention of Bordetella pertussis infection.

SB-3 (Infanrix-DTPa) is one of a new generation of vaccines for immunisation against pertussis (whooping cough), diphtheria and tetanus. It is a 3-component (pertussis toxin, filamentous haemagglutinin and pertactin) chemically inactivated acellular pertussis pertussis-diphtheria-tetanus toxoid (DTaP) vaccine, and it differs from conventional whole-cell pertussis-diphtheria-tetanus toxoid (DTwP) vaccines in that it comprises inactivated purified Bordetella pertussis antigens rather than whole cells of the bacillus. SB-3, like a number of other DTaP vaccines, elicits a similar or more often, a significantly greater immune response than various DTwP vaccines in healthy infants and young children. initial data from comparative studies indicate that SB-3 also remains immunogenic when given in combination with hepatitis B vaccine or concurrently administered with Haemophilus influenzae type b (HbOC) conjugate vaccine. A combination of SB-3 and H. influenzae type b tetanus (PRP-T) conjugate vaccine results in lower anti-PRP antibody response than when both vaccines are administered concurrently. Data from two large, multicentre, German and Italian studies in infants indicate that the protective efficacy of SB-3 against pertussis was significantly better than one DTwP (DTwP-CON) but similar to another one (DTwP-BW) under investigation. Compared with another DTaP vaccine (BIO-3), SB-3 was just as protective. Overall, the data from these 2 studies indicate that primary vaccination with SB-3 provides effective protection against pertussis, even under the stringent conditions of a household contact with typical pertussis. As the other DTaP vaccines, SB-3 is better tolerated than DTwP vaccines, with a significantly lower incidence of common adverse events such as local reactions (swelling, pain and a erythema), irritability, fever, persistent crying and local tenderness. Clinical experience with SB-3 thus far indicates that, like other DTaP vaccines, it is associated with significantly fewer common (non-serious) adverse events than DTwP vaccines. Less clear is whether it has any advantage over DTwP vaccines with respect to protective efficacy or over other DTaP vaccines with respect to tolerability and protective efficacy. Nevertheless, the available data support the use of SB-3 for infant immunisation, as well as providing a suitable basis for the development of new combination vaccines.

Bordetella pertussis↗

Remifentanil.

Remifentanil is a new selective mu opioid receptor agonist of higher potency than alfentanil, with pharmacological effects that essentially parallel those of alfentanil and other opioids in this class. Unlike other opioids, remifentanil is rapidly hydrolysed by nonspecific plasma and tissue esterases: this imparts brevity of action, precise and rapidly titratable effects (due to rapid onset and offset), non-cumulative opioid effects and rapid recovery after cessation of administration. The onset of action of remifentanil is similar to that of alfentanil, although its offset is considerably more rapid and independent of the duration of infusion. Remifentanil also has a sparing effect on hypnotics and sedatives. Its brevity of action ensures not only a rapid resolution of adverse effects but also a rapid offset of analgesic effect. Therefore, appropriate postoperative analgesia, when necessary, should be established before discontinuation of remifentanil infusion. The unique pharmacokinetic profile of remifentanil facilitates 'real time' management of intraoperative stress, as well as provision of optimal intraoperative analgesia without compromising recovery for a variety of surgical procedures.

Alfentanil↗

Irreversible binding kinetics of Bacillus thuringiensis CryIA delta-endotoxins to gypsy moth brush border membrane vesicles is directly correlated to toxicity.

To examine the binding of Bacillus thuringiensis delta-endotoxins, CryIAa, CryIAb, and CryIAc, to Lymantria dispar (gypsy moth) brush border membrane vesicles (BBMV), saturation kinetic analyses were conducted according to a two-step interaction scheme [formula: see text] for delta-endotoxin binding to BBMV, rather than the one-step reversible binding presented in prior reports. The order of toxicity of the delta-endotoxins, as measured by the dose required for a 50% inhibition of weight gain (ID50), was CryIAa (77.3 ng) > CryIAb (157 ng) > CryIAc (187 ng). While both the maximum extent of binding, Bmax, and the half-maximum insertion rate concentration, K1/2, was observed to be indirectly related to toxicity, the rate constant of irreversible binding, k2, was found to be directly correlated to toxicity.

Animals↗

Bacteriophage T7 helicase/primase proteins form rings around single-stranded DNA that suggest a general structure for hexameric helicases.

Most helicases studied to date have been characterized as oligomeric, but the relation between their structure and function has not been understood. The bacteriophage T7 gene 4 helicase/primase proteins act in T7 DNA replication. We have used electron microscopy, three-dimensional reconstruction, and protein crosslinking to demonstrate that both proteins form hexameric rings around single-stranded DNA. Each subunit has two lobes, so the hexamer appears to be two-tiered, with a small ring stacked on a large ring. The single-stranded DNA passes through the central hole of the hexamer, and the data exclude substantial wrapping of the DNA about or within the protein ring. Further, the hexamer binds DNA with a defined polarity as the smaller ring of the hexamer points toward the 5' end of the DNA. The similarity in three-dimensional structure of the T7 gene 4 proteins to that of the Escherichia coli RuvB helicase suggests that polar rings assembled around DNA may be a general feature of numerous hexameric helicases involved in DNA replication, transcription, recombination, and repair.

Bacteriophage T7↗

Involvement of Neurospora mitochondrial tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase in RNA splicing. A new method for purifying the protein and characterization of physical and enzymatic properties pertinent to splicing.

The Neurospora CYT-18 protein, the mitochondrial tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase, functions in the splicing of group I introns. Here, bacterially expressed CYT-18 protein, purified by a new procedure involving polyethyleneimine precipitation to remove tightly bound nucleic acids, was used to characterize properties pertinent to RNA splicing. Analytical ultracentrifugation and other methods showed that the CYT-18 protein is an asymmetric homodimer. The measured frictional ratio, f/fo = 1.55, corresponds to an axial ratio of 10 for a prolate ellipsoid or 12 for an oblate ellipsoid. Like bacterial TyrRSs, the CYT-18 protein exhibits half-sites reactivity, each homodimer having one active site for tyrosyl adenylation and RNA splicing. The splicing activity of CYT-18 was unaffected by aminoacylation substrates at concentrations used in aminoacylation reactions, whereas the TyrRS activity was inhibited by physiological concentrations of the splicing cofactor GTP, as well as CTP or UTP, or by low concentrations of a group I intron RNA. Kinetic measurements suggest that the binding of CYT-18 to a group I intron substrate is a two-step process, with an initial biomolecular step that is close to diffusion limited (3.24 +/- 0.03 x 10(7) M-1s-1) followed by a slower conformational change (0.54 +/- 0.07 s-1). After CYT-18 binding, splicing occurs at a rate of 0.0025 s-1, within 6-fold of the rate of self-splicing of the Tetrahymena large rRNA intron in vitro. The Kd for the complex between the CYT-18 protein and a group I intron substrate, calculated from koff/kon, was < 0.3 pM, substantially lower than determined by presumed equilibrium measurements [Guo, Q., & Lambowitz, A. M. (1992) Genes Dev. 6, 1357-1372]. As a result of this tight binding, the CYT-18 protein functions stoichiometrically in in vitro splicing reactions due to its extremely slow dissociation from the excised intron RNA. The very tight binding of the CYT-18 protein to the intron RNA raises the possibility that specific mechanisms exist for dissociating the protein from the excised intron in vivo.

Cloning, Molecular↗

Simultaneous optical recording of evoked and spontaneous transients of membrane potential and intracellular calcium concentration with high spatio-temporal resolution.

We have developed a system for simultaneous optical recording of transients of membrane potential and intracellular calcium concentration from mammalian brain slice preparations with high spatio-temporal resolution. Simultaneous recording was achieved by using two dedicated photodetectors together with two fluorescent indicators. Specifically, the calcium-sensitive dye Calcium Orange and the voltage-sensitive dye RH-414 were selected because they have overlapping excitation spectra, but separable emission spectra. Transverse guinea pig hippocampal slices were double-loaded by bath application of the membrane-permeant form of Calcium Orange and RH-414. Transients of intracellular calcium concentration and membrane potential associated with evoked neural activity in hippocampal areas CA1 and CA3 were recorded. Furthermore, we have recorded calcium and voltage transients associated with spontaneous epileptiform activity induced by bath application of an epileptogenic drug, 4-aminopyridine. The use of photodiode matrices (10 x 10 elements each) as detectors gives the high spatial (200 x 200 microns/element with a 10 x objective) and temporal resolution (570 microseconds/frame). The recording system also includes a CCD camera for obtaining images of the preparation and overlaying the image with the optically detected signals. A software package has been developed for setting up the experimental protocol(s) and for collecting, processing, displaying, and analyzing the data in an user-friendly, windows-based environment.

Animals↗

Desflurane. A review of its pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic properties and its efficacy in general anaesthesia.

Desflurane is a halogenated ether inhalation general anaesthetic agent with low solubility in blood and body tissues, and approximately one-fifth the potency of isoflurane. The pharmacodynamic properties of desflurane generally resemble those of isoflurane; thus, it produces dose-dependent depression of the central nervous and cardiorespiratory systems, and tetanic fade at the neuromuscular junction. The alveolar equilibration of desflurane is rapid (90% complete at 30 minutes compared with 73% for isoflurane). Both desflurane and isoflurane are distributed to various tissues to a similar extent. Desflurane is resistant to chemical degradation and undergoes negligible metabolism (approximately equal to 10% of that seen with isoflurane). Desflurane 'wash-out' is approximately equal to 2 to 2.5 times faster than that of isoflurane in the first 2 hours after discontinuation of anaesthesia. The low solubility of desflurane facilitates a rapid induction of anaesthesia and precise control of the depth of anaesthesia (during maintenance). Results from a few clinical studies indicate that emergence from desflurane is significantly earlier (by approximately equal to 2 to 6 minutes) than that from propofol anaesthesia, whereas other studies do not concur. In comparison with isoflurane, emergence from desflurane anaesthesia is significantly earlier (by 5 minutes) after ambulatory and approximately equal to 50% earlier (also significant) after nonambulatory surgical procedures. Limited comparative studies with halothane or sevoflurane also suggest an earlier time of emergence from desflurane anaesthesia. Comparative studies of desflurane and propofol, and other inhalation agents, indicate that the times to toleration of oral fluids, sitting and discharge from recovery room are similar, regardless of the general anaesthetic agent administered. However, some limited data in elderly patients (aged > 65 years) suggest that this patient group spends a significantly shorter time in the postanaesthesia care unit after desflurane than after isoflurane anaesthesia. Differences, if any, in the recovery of cognitive and psychomotor functions after desflurane or propofol anaesthesia remain unclear. However, in comparison with isoflurane anaesthesia, recovery of these functions (up to 45 minutes post-operatively) occurs earlier after desflurane. Significantly fewer patients are subjectively impaired (i.e. drowsy, clumsy, fatigued or confused) upon recovery from desflurane than from isoflurane anaesthesia. Likewise, significantly fewer adult patients are delirious when recovering from desflurane than from isoflurane anaesthesia, though in paediatric patients delirium is more likely when recovering from desflurane than from halothane anaesthesia. Haemodynamic stability during coronary artery surgery is as well maintained with desflurane as with isoflurane, and the drug does not worsen the adverse postoperative outcomes.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)

Adolescent↗

Nucleotide binding studies of bacteriophage T7 DNA helicase-primase protein.

Bacteriophage T7 DNA helicase protein is a hexameric protein that contains identical subunits arranged in a ring-like structure. Single-stranded DNA binds through the hole of the ring, and the helicase protein translocates and unwinds duplex DNA using nucleoside triphosphate (NTP) hydrolysis. In our efforts to understand how NTP hydrolysis may be coupled to movement of the helicase on the DNA, we have quantitated the equilibrium binding of deoxythymidine triphosphate and thymidine 5'-(beta,gamma-methylenetriphosphate) using nitrocellulose binding assays. Even though the helicase consists of six identical subunits, each hexamer was found to bind only three NTP molecules. These results indicate half-site binding or negative cooperativity in NTP binding by the hexamer. Interestingly, binding of three NTP molecules to the hexamer was sufficient for stoichiometric binding of a single-stranded oligodeoxynucleotide. Similar negative cooperativity in NTP binding has also been observed for other helicases, suggesting that it may be a general feature of hexameric helicases. The significance of half-site binding, however, is not understood at the present time.

Bacteriophage T7↗

Error-prone replication of repeated DNA sequences by T7 DNA polymerase in the absence of its processivity subunit.

We have examined the effect of thioredoxin, an accessory protein that confers high processivity to bacteriophage T7 DNA polymerase, on the fidelity of DNA synthesis. In the presence of thioredoxin, exonuclease-proficient T7 DNA polymerase is highly accurate. In fidelity assays that score errors that revert M13mp2 lacZ alpha-complementation mutants, error rates are < or = 2.2 x 10(-6) for base substitution and < or = 3.7 x 10(-7) and < or = 4.5 x 10(-7) for frameshifts that revert mutations in the +1 and -1 reading frames, respectively. Rates are more than 10-fold higher during synthesis by polymerase.thioredoxin complex lacking 3'-->5' exonuclease activity, demonstrating that frameshift as well as substitution errors are subject to proofreading. The contribution of thioredoxin to accuracy has been examined by comparing the fidelity of the exonuclease-deficient polymerase in the presence or absence of the accessory protein. Thioredoxin either enhances or reduces fidelity, depending on the type of error considered. In the absence of thioredoxin, T7 DNA polymerase is 3-fold more accurate for base substitutions and > or = 27-fold and 9-fold more accurate, respectively, for 1- and 2-nt deletion errors at nonreiterated nucleotide sequences. Higher fidelity for all three errors may reflect the inability of the polymerase to continue synthesis from the premutational intermediates in the absence of the accessory protein. In marked contrast, the rate for frameshift errors wherein one or more nucleotides has been added to a repeated DNA sequence increases 46-fold when thioredoxin is absent from the polymerization reaction. The error rate increases as the length of the repeated sequence increases, consistent with a model where strand slippage creates misaligned template-primers. Thus, replicative expansion of repetitive sequences occurs in the absence of a replication accessory protein.

Base Sequence↗