Cerebrospinal fluid spectrophotometry of bilirubin, not the Xanthochromic Index, for the detection of CT-negative sub-arachnoid haemorrhage.
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Bilirubin↗
Biomedical subjects
W Egner
Publications and source records attributed to W Egner.
Do serum levels of eosinophil granule-derived protein change in patients undergoing pelvic radiotherapy?
AIMS: Eosinophils have an important role in the pathogenesis of inflammatory bowel disease, with faecal levels of the eosinophil granule proteins, eosinophil cationic protein (ECP) and eosinophil protein X (EPX) reflecting disease activity. Eosinophil crypt abscesses are a characteristic histological finding in acute gastrointestinal radiation-induced mucosal damage. This pilot study aimed to investigate changes in serum levels of ECP/EPX during pelvic radiotherapy. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Patients with no history of inflammatory bowel disease, starting a 5-week course of pelvic radiotherapy, had serum ECP/EPX levels measured before radiotherapy and during the fourth week of treatment. Bowel toxicity was graded at week 4 using the Common Toxicity Criteria Scale. RESULTS: Fifteen patients who were to undergo adjuvant radiotherapy for gynaecological cancer were recruited. The mean serum levels of ECP and EPX before treatment were 17.3 microg/l (range 2.0-49.3 microg/l) and 37.3 microg/l (range 12.0-94.0 microg/l), respectively. The mean serum levels during week 4 of radiotherapy for ECP and EPX were 43.0 microg/l (range 2.4-164.0 microg/l) and 38.7 microg/l (range 9.0-79.0 microg/l), respectively. Serum ECP levels increased at week 4 compared with levels before radiotherapy (P = 0.02). Acute bowel toxicity was seen in 12 patients (80%) at week 4: Grade 1 in 25% patients and Grade 2 in 75%. In this small study, no correlation was seen between acute bowel toxicity at week 4 and serum ECP or EPX levels. CONCLUSIONS: Serum ECP levels increase in response to pelvic irradiation. This may reflect the known involvement of eosinophils in the acute response to radiotherapy. Further study is required to determine when levels start to rise and their relationship to the degree of acute bowel toxicity.
Aged↗
Survey of clinical allergy services provided by clinical immunologists in the UK.
BACKGROUND: The UK National Health Service is failing to meet the need for diagnosis and treatment of allergic disorders, which are common and increasing in prevalence. The House of Commons select committee report on allergy services highlighted the inequalities and urgent need for investment. AIM: To survey the allergy workload provided by clinical immunologists to inform service planning and resource allocation. METHODS: The allergy services performed by clinical immunologists during a 12 month period from 1 April 2003 to 31 March 2004 were surveyed by means of a questionnaire via supra-regional audit groups. RESULTS: The immunology centres surveyed serve 32 million people and offer almost the complete repertoire of a specialised allergy service. There were large variations in clinic capacity, new referrals, appointment duration, and service configuration. Services were largely consultant delivered, but availability of joint clinics with paediatricians and anaesthetists was locally variable. Novel service delivery models utilising nurses and clinical assistants have been developed and merit further investigation. CONCLUSION: Consultant immunologists and trainees currently make a major contribution to the development and provision of specialised allergy services. Consultant immunologists will probably remain key providers of tertiary level allergy care in the UK in the long term (in line with other countries) and will be pivotal in supporting and developing the provision of equitable national access to specialist allergy services in a timely manner. Rapid progress in developing the new specialty of allergy and securing better access to services for patients in the short term will be best served by strengthening the collaborative relationship between allergists and clinical immunologists.
Adult↗
The national survey of adverse reactions to dental materials in the UK: a preliminary study by the UK Adverse Reactions Reporting Project.
OBJECTIVE: Dental treatment involves the use of a wide range of materials. Many of the dental materials or their components pose a potential risk to the patient and member of the dental team. Pre-market biocompatibility testing cannot guarantee absolute safety, making monitoring of materials likely to cause an adverse reaction essential. The prevalence of adverse reactions to dental materials amongst dental patients and staff has not been systematically monitored in the UK. This project aims to develop a systematic approach to the evaluation and monitoring of the extent and severity of adverse reactions to dental materials in the UK. METHOD: Through the distribution of reporting forms to dental surgeries and laboratories in the UK, the ARRP has received 1,075 complete reports relating to adverse reactions seen or experienced by dental staff and patients. RESULTS: The main findings were that different materials cause adverse reactions to different groups of people. The largest proportion of patient related adverse reactions were reported to be due to metals (n = 175). These were mainly amalgam associated oral lichenoid reactions (n = 124). Dental technicians reported acrylic resin as the causal factor of hand dermatitis in 61% (44 out of a total 72) of cases reported. Finally, dental surgery staff reported gloves as causing hand dermatitis in 75% of cases (398 out of a total 531). CONCLUSIONS: Different dental materials affect different person groups depending on their exposure to the material. Dental staff are most at risk from an adverse reaction to latex gloves, whereas most reported reactions for patients were due to metals. For dental technicians the biggest danger of an adverse reaction was from acrylic resins. There is a need to continue to raise the awareness among dental professionals of the existence of the Adverse Reactions Reporting Project so as to overcome problems of under-reporting.
Acrylic Resins↗
Adverse reactions to protective gloves used in the dental profession: experience of the UK Adverse Reaction Reporting Project.
The Adverse Reaction Reporting Project (ARRP) was set up to measure the extent and severity of adverse reactions to dental materials in the UK. Further analysis into the use of protective gloves has been carried out to establish the degree to which gloves are having a deleterious effect on the dental profession. In addition the survey aimed to establish the techniques used to manage adverse reactions and their effectiveness. In a 23-month period, 369 reports were received concerning adverse reactions to protective gloves used in dental practices. Reporters were contacted for further information, and a 92% response rate was achieved. The 330 reports analysed showed dentists to be the largest group to report adverse reactions, whilst dental technicians reported the fewest. The referral rate for staff and patients was similar with a third of adverse reactions being referred (n=110) to a specialist for diagnosis. A confirmed diagnosis was received in 65% of referred cases (n=72), but the symptoms reported suggested a larger degree of Type I reactions occurring than diagnosed. The use of non-powdered gloves appeared to be favoured over powdered gloves in 42% of glove changes, and nitrile gloves were used as an alternative to latex in 39% of changes. In conclusion, the results from this survey showed that wearing gloves in dental practices in the UK caused a range of adverse reactions. In 79% (n=330) of cases reported and analysed, these reactions were readily resolved or improved by self-medication, prescribed medication and/or changing to a different type of protective glove.
Dental Staff↗
Efficacy, tolerability, safety and pharmacokinetics of a nanofiltered intravenous immunoglobulin: studies in patients with immune thrombocytopenic purpura and primary immunodeficiencies.
BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVES: A nanofiltration step with the capacity to reduce blood-borne pathogens was introduced into the manufacturing process of intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG). In order to demonstrate the efficacy, safety and pharmacokinetics of the modified product, we conducted Phase II/III studies comparing the nanofiltered IVIG (IVIG-N) with its parent product, Sandoglobulin, in patients with chronic immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and primary immunodeficiencies (PID). MATERIALS AND METHODS: Patients with ITP (n = 27) with platelet counts of < 20 x 10(9)/l were treated with Sandoglobulin or IVIG-N infusions at a dose of 0.4 g/kg body weight on five consecutive days. The primary efficacy end-point was the number of patients with an increase in platelet counts to > 50 x 10(9)/l. Secondary end-points were time to and duration of response, and regression of bleeding. Patients with PID (n = 36) were treated for 6 months with Sandoglobulin or IVIG-N at doses of 0.2-0.8 g/kg, infused at 3- or 4-week intervals. The primary end-point was the number of days absent from school/work. Secondary end-points were hospitalization, use of antibiotics and feeling of well-being. In both studies, tolerability was assessed by recording of adverse events and laboratory determinations. Viral safety was ascertained by serology supplemented with nucleic acid detection methods. Pharmacokinetics were analysed in patients with PID using serum concentration-time data for immunoglobulin G (IgG), and IgG antibodies to hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBsAg). RESULTS: In the ITP study, the primary end-point was met by 12/16 patients on IVIG-N and by 10/10 patients on Sandoglobulin (P = 0.123). A shift towards lesser bleeding intensity was seen in both groups. In the PID study, seven of 18 patients on IVIG-N and six of 16 patients on Sandoglobulin missed days at work/school, with monthly mean absences of 0.4 and 0.5 days (P = 0.805). The feeling of well-being was comparable in both groups. In the ITP study, adverse events with a causal relationship to medication were suspected in six patients on IVIG-N and in seven on Sandoglobulin. In the PID study, three patients on IVIG-N and two on Sandoglobulin experienced possible drug-related adverse events. In both studies, serological and polymerase chain reaction (PCR) tests gave evidence for virus safety. Pharmacokinetics showed constant peak and trough serum IgG levels in all patients, indicating almost steady-state conditions for both formulations. The overall half-life (t1/2) for total IgG was 33 +/- 17 days in the IVIG-N arm and 25 +/- 16 days in the Sandoglobulin arm; for anti-HBsAg t1/2, values were 17 +/- 7 and 17 +/- 9 days, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: IVIG-N is efficacious, well tolerated and safe in patients with ITP and PID. Its pharmacokinetic properties were comparable to those of Sandoglobulin.
Adolescent↗
Juvenile dermatomyositis associated with hereditary angioneurotic oedema.
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Angioedema↗
Detection of serum M2 anti-mitochondrial antibodies by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is potentially less specific than by immunofluorescence.
AIM: To compare the predictive values of enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs) and indirect immunofluorescence (IIF) techniques for the detection of M2 anti-mitochondrial antibodies. METHODS: Commercial ELISAs are widely available for the detection of anti-mitochondrial antibody subtypes in primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC). We compared the results from two ELISAs (one recombinant, one purified antigen) with those from two IIF methods in a well-defined cohort of PBC patients and in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjögren's syndrome, sicca syndrome, systemic sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis and blood donor controls. RESULTS: There was good correlation between a rodent substrate IIF and ELISA A (r=0.9134), but poor correlation with ELISA B (r=0.5999), which produced many false-positive results in the control population. We show that rodent IIF alone or human epithelial cell (HEp-2000) screening with confirmation by ELISA produce similar predictive values for PBC and require lesser degrees of skilled interpretation of IIF patterns. CONCLUSIONS: We conclude that the specificities of IIF are greater than the ELISA methods (99% versus 85-97%), although the ELISAs are slightly more sensitive in biopsy-proven PBC. Careful in-house validation of all new ELISA technologies is mandatory for good laboratory practice, but IIF in experienced hands remains an effective and specific assay.
Animals↗
Antibody responses to vaccinations given within the first two years after transplant are similar between autologous peripheral blood stem cell and bone marrow transplant recipients.
As a consequence of the significantly larger inoculum of lymphoid cells present in peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) harvests compared to bone marrow (BM), it is possible that autoPBSCT recipients may have an earlier and*or enhanced response to vaccines. Until data to confirm this become available, the European Blood and Marrow Transplantation Association (EBMT) recommend that all transplant recipients be immunized in the same way regardless of stem cell source. We performed a prospective study comparing serological responses to influenza, pneumococcal polysaccharide and tetanus toxoid vaccines between autoPBSCT with autoBMT recipients. Antibody responses in sibling HLA-matched allogeneic BMT (alloBMT) survivors were also evaluated. All vaccines were administered within the first 2 years after stem cell transplantation. Fifty patients were enrolled. The time of vaccination after transplant was similar between autoPBSCT (mean 11 months for each vaccine) and autoBMT recipients (mean 12 months except 13 months for tetanus toxoid) (P = NS). Serological responses were poor and no significant difference in response to any of the vaccines used was seen between the three transplant cohorts. We provide no evidence that current EBMT guidelines be modified. Large prospective vaccine studies are needed to address the issue more fully.
Adolescent↗
Two episodes of life-threatening anaphylaxis in the same patient to a chlorhexidine-sulphadiazine-coated central venous catheter.
Chlorhexidine allergy has been described in the literature, mainly in Japanese individuals. Most reactions have been limited to the skin, mild in severity and a result of chlorhexidine containing solutions such as 'Savlon' (Novartis Consumer Health, Horesham, UK). We describe what we believe is the first reported case of anaphylaxis in a European patient to a chlorhexidine- sulphadiazine-coated central venous catheter.
Anaphylaxis↗
Bilateral granulomatous uveitis in association with common variable immunodeficiency.
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Adult↗
Assessment of latex allergy in a healthcare population: are the available tests valid?
BACKGROUND: Latex allergy can cause serious, preventable work-related health problems in healthcare workers who are a high risk group for this form of allergy. Type I hypersensitivity can produce life-threatening systemic effects, and involves an allergen-specific immunoglobulin (IgE) response to proteins found in latex. The estimated prevalence of latex 'allergy' in healthcare workers varies widely (2.8% - 18%), and studies do not always distinguish between those who are positive in an assay for latex-specific IgE and those with clinical allergy. OBJECTIVE: To assess the performance of four in-vitro methods and three skin testing methods for detecting latex-specific IgE in a group of UK healthcare workers. Test results were compared with reported clinical symptoms defined by questionnaire. METHODS: Skin prick testing was carried out on volunteers using three reagents: (a) stallergenes commercial latex extract (Cedex, France); (b) an in-house latex glove extract; and (c) a fresh glove piece. Specific IgE levels were determined using Pharmacia AutocapTM (Uppsala, Sweden), Pharmacia UnicapTM (Uppsala, Sweden), DPC Immulite(R) (Los Angeles, USA) and Hycor HytecTM (Irvine, California, USA) methods. Each volunteer completed a questionnaire detailing latex exposure and allergic history. RESULTS: In vitro methods for detecting specific IgE to natural rubber latex were positive in 3.6%, to 43.6% of the same population. Skin prick tests positivity varied between 2. 9% and 14.3% with different extracts. From the subjects tested 9.1% reported symptoms which could be consistent with type I allergy, although none had been given a pre-existing diagnosis of latex allergy, and 43.6% of volunteers reported symptoms consistent with type IV hypersensitivity or irritant dermatitis. Contingency tables and chi-squared analysis revealed no correlation between most methods. No correlation was shown between symptoms consistent with type I allergy and any in vitro or skin testing method for latex-specific IgE. CONCLUSIONS: A wide variation between testing procedures was found, and no method could be correlated with reported symptoms of type I allergy. At least one in vitro specific IgE assay produced a high percentage of positive results at variance with the clinical symptoms in volunteers. A clinical history is essential in establishing type I hypersensitivity to latex and test results should not be used in isolation. The incidence of clinical sensitization may be seriously over-estimated if only laboratory parameters are used.
Adult↗
The use of laboratory tests in the diagnosis of SLE.
ANA IIF is an effective screening assay in patients with clinical features of SLE and will detect most anti-ssDNA, anti-dsDNA, ENAs, and other autoantibodies. False positives are common. The clinical importance cannot be extrapolated from the ANA titre or pattern, although higher titres (> 1/160) are more likely to be important. HEp-2 cells are the most sensitive substrate for ANA detection, but this must be balanced against an increased incidence of insignificant positivity. ANA positive samples should be subjected to more specific assays for the diagnosis of SLE. A combination of ENA (Ro/La/Sm/RNP) and dsDNA assays will detect most patients with SLE as long as the characteristics of the assays used are well understood. ESR and CRP measurements provide useful additional information. Sjogren's syndrome and MCTD will produce overlapping serology with SLE, and anti-dsDNA titres are sometimes seen in autoimmune hepatitis and rheumatoid arthritis. All results should be reported in the light of the clinical details, by an experienced immunologist. A suggested diagnostic protocol is outlined in fig 1. The type of assay used crucially influences the predictive value of the tests. ELISA technology dominates routine laboratory practice, but tends to produce more false positive and true weak positive results, which may reduce the PPV of the test. This can be minimised by using IgG specific conjugates and careful assay validation. The NPV for SLE [figure: see text] is high for most assays but the PPV varies. Where necessary, laboratories should use crithidia or Farr dsDNA assays to confirm dubious ELISA dsDNA results, and ID/IB to confirm dubious ENA results. For monitoring, a precise, quantitative assay is required. It is unclear whether the detection of IgM or low affinity antibodies has a role here. A combination of anti-dsDNA, C3, C4, CRP, and ESR assays provides the most useful clinical information. Anti-ssDNA assays are likely to be useful, and are potentially more robust than anti-dsDNA assays, but require more validation. Local validation of individual assays and EQA participation is essential. Not all assays that apparently measure the same antibody specificities have equal clinical relevance, even within a single technology. Insufficient international or national reference preparations are currently available for many antibody specificities to enable effective standardisation. Quality assurance schemes reveal large differences in units reported by different assays for some analytes, even when calibrated against an IRP or equivalent reference preparation. Serial results can therefore only be compared from the same laboratory at present. Most autoantibodies increase during active disease, but few prospective data are currently available to justify treatment on the basis of rising titres. Further randomised prospective studies are required to examine the importance of antibody isotype and affinity in the monitoring of SLE by individual assay methods. The most important aspect of the appropriate use of laboratory assays is to become familiar with the limitations of the technology currently in use in your local laboratory, and to consult with your clinical immunologist in cases of doubt, preferably before commencing serological screening.
Antibodies, Anticardiolipin↗
The frequency and clinical significance of specific IgE to both wasp (Vespula) and honey-bee (Apis) venoms in the same patient.
BACKGROUND: Changeover from Phadebas RAST to Pharmacia AutoCAP increased double-positivity to both honey-bee and common wasp (vespula) venom in our patients. OBJECTIVE: We examined the frequency of IgE double-positivity, its clinical relevance and utility in investigating potentially allergic patients. METHODS: One hundred and eighty-two patients with hymenoptera allergy were tested using RAST (n = 51) and AutoCAP (n = 131) assays over 4 years. Patients had a history of reactions to vespulae (22), honey-bee (10) and unidentified hymenoptera (vespinae) (7). RESULTS: After changing from RAST to AutoCAP double-positivity increased from 10 (5/ 51) to 30% (39/131) (P < 0.01). RAST and CAP assays gave similar median class results (vespula = 3, honey-bee = 2). Thirty-six CAP patients had systemic reactions of Mueller grade II and above. In vespula-allergic double-positive subjects, high CAP classes (> or = class 3) to honey-bee were common (30%). In 25% the CAP classes were equal. In honey-bee-allergic subjects, all vespula venom CAP IgE was low titre (class 1 or 2) and 20% were equal for both venoms. In 43% of vespinae-allergic patients the CAP class was equal to both (class 2 and 3). In contrast, intradermal skin test double-positivity was uncommon. Double-negative skin test results were common in the CAP double-positive population (22% of honey-bee-allergic, 13% of vespula-allergic and 43% of vespinae-allergic patients). Vespula allergic patients have higher bee-venom IgE than vice versa. Twenty-seven per cent of CAP double-positive patients (representing 8% of all venom allergic patients tested over this period) had equal class IgE to both venoms which was not helpful in diagnosis. Combination of skin testing and CAP is unhelpful in only 5/37 (14%) of patients with double-positive serology. CONCLUSION: If used in isolation CAP may be misleading, especially if only one venom is tested. Identification of the causative venom must utilize both clinical history and skin testing in these double-positive patients, and challenge testing if indicated.
Adolescent↗
Incidence, character and clinical relevance of mixed cryoglobulinaemia in patients with chronic hepatitis C virus infection.
Hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection has been implicated in the pathogenesis of mixed cryoglobulinaemia. Several studies have shown the presence of anti-HCV antibodies and HCV-RNA in both sera and cryoglobulins of such patients. However, the prevalence and clinical significance of cryoglobulins remain uncertain in patients with chronic HCV infection. We have studied 113 consecutive patients referred for assessment because of the presence of anti-HCV antibody in serum for the presence of cryoglobulinaemia and ascertained their clinical relevance and immunochemical properties. Twenty-one of 113 (19%) had detectable cryoglobulins with a mean protein concentration of 0.38 g/l (range 0.15-3.34 g/l). Most of these patients were asymptomatic. The cryoglobulins were of type III in 19 (91%) and of type II in two patients (9%). The latter two patients had the highest concentration of cryoglobulins, subnormal C4 and C1q levels suggesting classical pathway activation and vasculitis with renal impairment. The cryoglobulin IgG subclasses were mainly IgG1 and IgG3. HCV-RNA was detected more frequently in the sera of cryoglobulin-positive patients than in cryoglobulin-negative patients. This study showed that mixed cryoglobulinaemia is common in chronic HCV infection, and is predominantly type III. Evidence of systemic or renal disease was rare except in those with type II cryoglobulinaemia, and this may reflect either the concentration of the cryoprecipitate or the presence of a monoclonal complement-activating IgM paraprotein. The detection of HCV-RNA in the majority of the cryoprecipitates further supports the important role of HCV in the etiopathogenesis of essential mixed cryoglobulinaemia, although the mechanism is at present unclear.
Adult↗
Intercellular adhesion molecule-3 is the predominant co-stimulatory ligand for leukocyte function antigen-1 on human blood dendritic cells.
Dendritic cells (DC) are potent stimulators of primary T lymphocyte responses to foreign antigen. The initial DC-T lymphocyte interaction involves the binding of the adhesion molecule leukocyte function antigen-1 (LFA-1; CD11a/CD18) on the T lymphocyte to an intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM) on the DC. Although blood and tonsil DC express ICAM-1 (CD54) and ICAM-2 (CD102) on their surface, anti-ICAM-1 and anti-ICAM-2 monoclonal antibodies (mAb) have little inhibitory activity on the DC-stimulated mixed leukocyte reaction (MLR). We therefore examined the expression of the more recently identified LFA-1 ligand, ICAM-3 (CD50), in comparison to ICAM-1 and ICAM-2 on blood DC and sought a functional role for ICAM-3 in DC-mediated T lymphocyte responses. Resting blood DC expressed significantly more ICAM-3 than ICAM-1 or ICAM-2 as assessed by flow cytometry. Treatment of resting DC with interferon-gamma led to increased expression of ICAM-1; however, ICAM-2 and ICAM-3 levels remained relatively constant. Solid-phase recombinant chimeric molecules ICAM-1-, ICAM-2- and ICAM-3-Fc were able to co-stimulate CD4+ T lymphocyte proliferation in conjunction with suboptimal solid-phase CD3 mAb 64.1. However, the anti-ICAM-3 mAb CAL 3.10 inhibited a DC-stimulated MLR to a greater extent than anti-ICAM-1 or anti-ICAM-2 reagents and appeared to act by blocking the DC ICAM-3- T lymphocyte LFA-1 interaction. As ICAM-3 is the predominant LFA-1 ligand on resting blood DC, we postulate that DC may utilize ICAM-3 for initial DC- T lymphocyte interactions, and that ICAM-1, which is up-regulated upon DC activation, and/or ICAM-2, may contribute to DC migration or later phases of the T lymphocyte activation process.
Antigens, CD↗
New molecules on dendritic cells and their interactions with T lymphocytes.
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Abatacept↗
The phenotype of freshly isolated and cultured human bone marrow allostimulatory cells: possible heterogeneity in bone marrow dendritic cell populations.
Putative dendritic cells (DC) and their precursors have been obtained from human bone marrow but their origin and relationship to other myeloid cells remains obscure. A minor bone marrow mononuclear cell (BMMC) population, which contains the most potent allostimulatory cells and lacks mature cell lineage markers (CD3, CD11b, CD14, CD15, CD16, CD19, CD57 and glycophorin A; lineage-negative) was enriched by immunoselection. These preparations, which contain cells with similar characteristics to freshly isolated human blood DC, were further subdivided by serial fluorescent-activated cell sorting (FACS). Potent allostimulatory cells were detected in the CD34, CD33 and CD4 positive and negative subpopulations. Cells with putative DC morphology were present in both the CD33 and CD4 positive and negative fractions. No significant CD13 or Thy-1 staining was seen in the lineage-negative population. In vitro culture of lineage-negative BMMC for 7 days in conditioned medium resulted in a up to fivefold expansion of cells and generated many lineage-positive progeny. This lineage-positive population was as allostimulatory as the negative progeny. Likewise, the CD14-positive and the CD14-negative cell progeny were equally allostimulatory. In contrast, the freshly isolated lineage-positive BMMC (containing CD14-positive monocytes) remained poor stimulators of the mixed lymphocyte reaction (MLR), even after culture in the presence of cytokines. These data suggest that there are at least two phenotypically diverse forms of potent allostimulatory cells in the lineage-negative fraction of human BM, at least some of which express the early haemopoietic precursor antigens CD34 or CD33. Some of these precursors generate CD14-positive allostimulatory cells upon in vitro culture, suggesting an intimate link between DC ontogeny and myeloid differentiation.
Antigens, CD↗