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Dual Mg2+ control of formyl-peptide-receptor--G-protein interaction in HL 60 cells. Evidence that the low-agonist-affinity receptor interacts with and activates the G-protein.

In neutrophils and several other phagocytic cell types, a pertussis- and cholera-toxin-sensitive form of the guanine-nucleotide-binding protein (G-protein) Gp couples receptors for N-formylmethionine-containing chemotactic peptides to stimulation of phospholipase C. Using membranes of myeloid differentiated HL 60 cells, we have examined the role of Mg2+ and guanine nucleotides in regulating (a) the interaction of the formyl-peptide receptor with the chemotactic agonist N-formylmethionyl-leucyl-phenylalanine (fMet-Leu-Phe) and (b) the receptor-mediated activation of Gp. Mg2+ markedly enhanced the number of receptors with high affinity for the radiolabeled oligopeptide fMet-Leu-[3H]Phe. At the same time, Mg2+ largely increased the potency of guanosine-5'-(3-O-thio)triphosphate, but not of GDP or guanosine-5'-(2-O-thio)diphosphate, to inhibit binding of the peptide. Comparison of the potency of Mg2+ in eliciting these two effects and analysis of the specificities of the relevant divalent cation sites revealed that Mg2+ interacts with at least two independent sites on the receptor-Gp complex. One site is specific for Mg2+ and exhibits affinity in the micromolar range, the other site interacts with millimolar concentrations of several divalent cations in a non-selective fashion. It is suggested that the former site is located on Gp and that interaction of Mg2+ with this site is necessary for the receptor-mediated G-protein activation, whereas interaction of divalent cations with the latter site is necessary for high affinity agonist binding. The regulation of the formyl-peptide receptor binding properties by guanine nucleotides is independent of Gp activation, since inhibition of peptide binding is achieved by addition of both guanine nucleoside diphosphates and triphosphates and is readily seen both in the presence and in the absence of Mg2+. The latter finding, together with the observation that, at micromolar concentrations of Mg2+, high-affinity GTPase activity is stimulated by fMet-Leu-Phe primarily via low affinity receptors, suggests that, contrary to widely held opinions, (a) divalent cations are not required for a functional receptor--G-protein interaction and (b) high-affinity agonist binding is not a prerequisite for the receptor-mediated activation of the G-protein.

Binding Sites↗

Parent-offspring coadaptation and the dual genetic control of maternal care.

In many animal species, the amount of care provided by parents is determined through a complex interaction of offspring signals and responses by parents to those signals. As predicted by honest signaling theory, we show that in the burrower bug, Sehirus cinctus, maternal provisioning responds to experimental manipulations of offspring condition. Despite this predicted environmental influence, we find evidence from two cross-foster experiments that variation in maternal care also stems from two distinct genetic sources: variation among offspring in their ability to elicit care and variation among parents in their response to offspring signals. Furthermore, as predicted by maternal-offspring coadaptation theory, offspring signaling is negatively genetically correlated with maternal provisioning.

Adaptation, Physiological↗

Dual regulatory control of a particle maturation function of bacteriophage P1.

A unique arrangement of promoter elements was found upstream of the bacteriophage P1 particle maturation gene (mat). A P1-specific late-promoter sequence with conserved elements located at positions -22 and -10 was expected from the function of the gene in phage morphogenesis. In addition to a late-promoter sequence, a -35 element and an operator sequence for the major repressor protein, C1, were found. The -35 and -10 elements constituted an active Escherichia coli sigma(70) consensus promoter, which was converted into a P1-regulated early promoter by the superimposition of a C1 operator. This combination of early- and late-promoter elements regulates and fine-tunes the expression of the particle maturation gene. During lysogenic growth the gene is turned off by P1 immunity functions. Upon induction of lytic growth, the expression of mat starts simultaneously with the expression of other C1-regulated P1 early functions. However, while most of the latter functions are downregulated during late stages of lytic growth the expression of mat continues throughout the entire lytic growth cycle of bacteriophage P1. Thus, the maturation function has a head start on the structural components of the phage particle.

Amino Acid Sequence↗

Dual transcriptional control of amfTSBA, which regulates the onset of cellular differentiation in Streptomyces griseus.

The amf gene cluster encodes a probable secretion system for a peptidic morphogen, AmfS, which induces aerial mycelium formation in Streptomyces griseus. Here we examined the transcriptional control mechanism for the promoter preceding amfT (PamfT) directing the transcription of the amfTSBA operon. High-resolution S1 analysis mapped a transcriptional start point at 31 nucleotides upstream of the translational start codon of amfT. Low-resolution analysis showed that PamfT is developmentally regulated in the wild type and completely abolished in an amfR mutant. The -35 region of PamfT contained the consensus sequence for the binding of BldD, a pleiotropic negative regulator for morphological and physiological development in Streptomyces coelicolor A3(2). The cloned bldD locus of S. griseus showed high sequence similarity to the S. coelicolor counterpart. Transcription of bldD occurred constitutively in both the wild type and an A-factor-deficient mutant of S. griseus, which suggests that the regulatory role of BldD is independent of A-factor. The gel retardation assay revealed that purified BldD and AmfR recombinant proteins specifically bind PamfT. Overproduction of BldD in the wild-type cell conferred a bald phenotype (defective in aerial growth and streptomycin production) and caused marked repression of PamfT activity. An amfT-depleted mutant also showed a bald phenotype but PamfT activity was not affected. Both the bldD-overproducing wild-type strain and the amfT mutant were unable to induce aerial growth of an amfS mutant in a cross-feeding assay, which indicates that these strains are defective in the production of an active AmfS peptide. The results overall suggests that two independent regulators, AmfR and BldD, control PamfT activity via direct binding to determine the transcriptional level of the amf operon responsible for the production and secretion of AmfS peptide, which induces the erection of aerial hyphae in S. griseus.

Bacterial Proteins↗

Dual adrenergic control of renin during nonhypotensive hemorrhage in conscious dogs.

These experiments evaluated the contribution of renal alpha-adrenoceptors, renal beta-adrenoceptors, and extrarenal beta-adrenoceptors to increased plasma renin activity (PRA) during nonhypotensive hemorrhage in conscious dogs. Blood withdrawal at a rate of 16 g/kg body wt over 20 min increased PRA to nearly threefold control levels without decreasing mean arterial pressure. The PRA response to hemorrhage was reduced to a greater extent by simultaneous direct renal arterial (ira) infusion of phenoxybenzamine and propranolol than by propranolol alone. Phenoxybenzamine infusion ira did not block alpha-adrenoceptors located outside of the kidney. The PRA and heart rate responses to hemorrhage were both significantly reduced when propranolol was infused either ira or intravenously (iv) at a rate of 2 micrograms.kg-1.min-1 for 20 min followed by 0.5 microgram.kg-1.min-1 continuous infusion. Propranolol infusion at a lower rate (0.5 microgram.kg-1.min-1 for 20 min followed by 0.12 microgram.kg-1.min-1) had little effect on the magnitude of increase in PRA when infused either iv or ira. The calculated renal arterial plasma propranolol concentration was at least fivefold higher or more during ira than during iv propranolol infusion at each rate and was approximately the same during ira infusion at the lower rate (17.5 +/- 0.7 ng/ml) as during iv infusion at the higher rate (16.7 +/- 2.4 ng/ml). These data indicate that the hemorrhage-induced increase in PRA is mediated by renal alpha-adrenoceptors and extrarenal beta-adrenoceptors, whereas renal beta-adrenoceptors appear to play little or no role.

Aldosterone↗

Dual presynaptic control by ATP of glutamate release via facilitatory P2X1, P2X2/3, and P2X3 and inhibitory P2Y1, P2Y2, and/or P2Y4 receptors in the rat hippocampus.

ATP is released in a vesicular manner from nerve terminals mainly at higher stimulation frequencies. There is a robust expression of ATP (P2) receptors in the brain, but their role is primarily unknown. We report that ATP analogs biphasically modulate the evoked release of glutamate from purified nerve terminals of the rat hippocampus, the facilitation being mediated by P2X1, P2X2/3, and P2X3 [antagonized by 8-(benzamido)naphthalene-1,3,5-trisulfonate and 2',3'-O-(2,4,6-trinitrophenyl)-ATP] and the inhibition by P2Y1, P2Y2, and/or P2Y4 [antagonized by reactive blue 2 and 2'deoxy-N6-methyladenosine-3',5'-bisphosphate and mimicked by P1-(urinine 5'-),P4-(inosine 5'-) tetraphosphate and 2-methylthio-ADP] receptors. The combination of single-cell PCR analysis of rat hippocampal pyramidal neurons, Western blot analysis of purified presynaptic active zone fraction, and immunocytochemical analysis of hippocampal glutamatergic terminals revealed that the P2 receptors expressed in glutamatergic neurons, located in the active zone and in glutamatergic terminals, were precisely P2X1, P2X2, and P2X3 subunits and P2Y1, P2Y2, and P2Y4 receptors. This provides coincident functional and molecular evidence that P2 receptors are present and act presynaptically as a modulatory system controlling hippocampal glutamate release.

Adenosine Diphosphate↗

Control of dual isoforms of Ca2+ release channels in muscle.

Here we compare excitation-contraction coupling in single muscle cells of frogs and rats. Because amphibians have isoform 3 (or 3) of the ryanodine receptor/Ca2+ release channel, in addition to 1 (alpha), which is also present in the mammal, any extra feature present in the frog may in principle be attributed to isoform 3. Ca2+ release under voltage clamp depolarization has a peak and a steady phase in both taxonomic classes, but the peak is more marked in the frog, where the ratio of amplitudes of the two phases is voltage-dependent. This dependence is a hallmark of CICR. Confocal imaging identified Ca2+ sparks in the frog, but not in the voltage-clamped rat cells. Because Ca2+ sparks involve CICR both observations indicate that the contribution of CICR is minor or null in the mammal. The "couplon" model well accounts for observations in the frog, but assumes a structure that we now know to be valid only for the rat. A revised model is proposed, whereby the isoform 3 channels, located parajunctionally, are activated by CICR and contribute its characteristic global and local features. Several issues regarding the roles of different channels remain open to further study.

Animals↗

Dual cholinergic control of fast-spiking interneurons in the neostriatum.

GABAergic interneurons appear to play a fundamental role in the functioning of the neostriatum by modulating the spiking of striatal projection neurons with great efficacy. The powerful and strongly divergent output of the GABAergic interneurons neurons suggests that modulation of their activity may be particularly effective at controlling the functioning of the entire neostriatal circuitry. Acetylcholine is one of the main modulators of striatal functioning. The effects of acetylcholine on fast-spiking (FS) GABAergic interneurons were studied with whole-cell recording in an in vitro slice preparation. Acetylcholine exerted two distinct effects on fast-spiking interneurons. Acetylcholine directly depolarized FS interneurons by acting on nondesensitizing soma-dendritic nicotinic receptors. In addition, acetylcholine attenuated the GABAergic inhibition of projection neurons by fast-spiking interneurons through activation of presynaptic muscarinic receptors. It is suggested that the nicotinic excitation of FS interneurons may play an important role in translating the effect of the brief behaviorally contingent cessation of firing of the tonically active cholinergic interneurons to the output neurons of the neostriatum. In contrast, the muscarinic presynaptic inhibitory mechanism may be engaged primarily during longer-lasting elevations of extracellular acetylcholine levels.

Acetylcholine↗

[Dual noradrenergic control of oxytocin release during the milk ejection reflex in the rat].

During suckling in the Rat, inhibition of oxytocin release by alpha-noradrenergic antagonist and beta-noradrenergic agonist is well established, but no result pinpointed the site where the drugs acted. Simultaneous recordings of: (1) the electrical activity of the oxytocinergic (OT) neurons in the paraventricular nucleus; (2) the intramammary pressure (p.i.m.) with observations of the behaviour of the litter, have shown two levels of control. Intraventricular injections of phentolamine (an alpha antagonist) significantly depressed the spontaneous and reflex firing of OT-cells, and during this inhibition, neither p.i.m. increases nor behavioural responses of young Rats could be detected. On the contrary, after isoproterenol (a beta agonist), the reflex OT releases did not occur but the basal firing rate of OT cells and the magnitude and frequency of bursts were not affected. The action level of the two drugs is discussed.

Animals↗

Hypobaric hypoxia: dual sympathetic control in the light of RR and QT spectra.

ECGs of 21 candidate-pilots and 19 pilots were recorded during: 1) exposure to 5500 m hypobaric hypoxia (HH) while sitting, in the sequence: 1a) initial 7 min of adaptation (A); 1b) later 7 min of recovery (R) after short but intense tread-mill effort; and 2) final 7 min baseline (B), while sitting and requested to relax, at "0 m altitude" in the hypobaric room. RR and QT short-term variability were studied using spectral powers within Traube-Hering-Mayer (THM: 0.05-0.15 Hz) and respiratory (RESP: 0.2-0.4 Hz) bands. Mean RR proved highest capability to aggregate individual response-profiles: 15 pilots and 9 candidates entered the main (normal) cluster, featured by a comparison "triangle" set as expected: A > R < B > A. QT-THM power closely followed: 10 subjects (ss) in very normal cluster, defined as: A < R > B < A, while secondary clusters in candidates and pilots were interpreted by not-successful relaxation and exaggerated start-effects, respectively. Subjects with QT-THM normal clusters (A < R > B < A has group averages, p < = 0.05), also showed a quasi-normal "triangle" for mean RR, (A = R < B > A). During adaptation to hypoxia, pilots' QT-THM was higher than candidates' one (p < 0.02, Wilcoxon test). Study supports the emerging capability of QT-THM spectral power to index ventricular sympathetic control. Exposure to hypobaric hypoxia proved to be in these subjects a psycho-physiologic rather than a purely physiologic test.

Adaptation, Physiological↗

Local control of blood pressure by purines.

Dual control of local blood flow by purines is described: adenosine 5'-triphosphate (ATP) released as a cotransmitter with noradrenaline from perivascular sympathetic nerves acts on P2X-purinoceptors on smooth muscle cells to produce vasoconstriction; ATP released from endothelial cells during hypoxia (and ADP released from aggregating platelets) acts on P2Y-purinoceptors on endothelial cells which results in production of endothelium-derived relaxing factor and subsequent vasodilatation. It is suggested that the endothelial-mediated vasodilatation is a pathophysiological mechanism to protect the host tissue (e.g. brain or heart) from damage produced by hypoxia following ischaemia. The ATP released from the endothelial cells is rapidly broken down to adenosine which augments this protective mechanism by acting directly on P1-purinoceptors on vascular smooth muscle to produce a longer lasting component of vasodilatation and on perivascular sympathetic nerve terminals to inhibit release of excitatory neurotransmitters. The possibility that impairment of normal endothelial-mediated responses in atherosclerosis and hypertension can lead to local vasospasm is considered.

Animals↗

RpoS-dependent promoters require guanosine tetraphosphate for induction even in the presence of high levels of sigma(s).

RpoS-dependent promoters require ppGpp for induction in the stationary phase. This has been thought to be a simple consequence of final sigma(S) itself requiring ppGpp for its production. By using four model promoters requiring final sigma(S) for normal induction in the stationary phase, we demonstrate that final sigma(S)-dependent promoters require ppGpp even in the presence of high levels of final sigma(S) produced ectopically. Similar to final sigma(70)-dependent promoters under positive control by ppGpp, the requirement of final sigma(S)-dependent promoters for this alarmone is bypassed by specific "stringent" mutations in the beta-subunit of RNA polymerase. The results suggest that stationary phase induction of both final sigma(S)- and final sigma(70)-dependent genes requires the stringent control modulon and that stringency confers dual control on the RpoS regulon by affecting promoter activity and the levels of the required final sigma-factor.

Bacterial Proteins↗

Pattern of adaptive control of levels of rat liver tryptophan transaminase.

The dual control by substrate and hormone of the level of a third adaptive enzyme in animals is described. Injections of hydrocortisone or the substrate tryptophan increased the level of the liver tryptophan-alpha-ketoglutarate transaminase of intact rats within 5 hours. In adrenalectomized rats this enzyme level was increased by hydrocortisone alone, but substrate induction could be demonstrated only if these animals were treated at the same time with hydrocortisone.

Animals↗

Dual X-ray absorptiometry quality control: comparison of visual examination and process-control charts.

Dual X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) is widely used to monitor treatment efficacy in reducing the rate of bone mineral loss. In order to assure the validity of these measurements, instrument quality control of the DXA scanners becomes very important. This paper compares five quality control procedures (visual inspection, Shewhart chart with sensitizing rules, Shewhart chart with sensitizing rules and a filter for clinically insignificant mean changes, moving average chart and standard deviation, and cumulative sum chart [CUSUM]) in their ability to identify scanner malfunction by means of (1) an analysis of five longitudinal phantom data sets that had been collected during a clinical trial and (2) an analysis of simulated data sets. The visual inspection method is relatively subjective and depends on the operator's experience and attention. The regular Shewhart chart with sensitizing rules has a high false alarm rate. The Shewhart chart with sensitizing rules and an additional filter for clinically insignificant mean changes has the lowest false alarm rate but a relatively low sensitivity. The CUSUM method has good sensitivity and a low false alarm rate. In addition, this method provides an estimate of the date a change in the DXA scanner performance might have occurred. The method combining a moving average chart and a moving standard deviation chart came closest to the performance of the CUSUM method. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of all methods, we propose the use of the CUSUM method as a quality control procedure for monitoring DXA scanner performance. For clinical trials use of the more intuitive Shewhart charts may be acceptable at the individual sites provided their scanner performance is followed up by CUSUM analysis at a central quality assurance center.

Absorptiometry, Photon↗

Interrelations between sleep and the somatotropic axis.

In the human as in other mammals, growth hormone (GH) is secreted as a series of pulses. In normal young adults, a major secretory episode occurs shortly after sleep onset, in temporal association with the first period of slow-wave (SW) sleep. In men, approximately 70% of the daily GH output occurs during early sleep throughout adulthood. In women, the contribution of sleep-dependent GH release to the daily output is lower and more variable. Studies involving shifts of the sleep-wake cycle have consistently shown that sleep-wake homeostasis is the primary determinant of the temporal organization of human GH release. Effects of circadian rhythmicity may occasionally be detected. During nocturnal sleep, the sleep-onset GH pulse is caused by a surge of hypothalamic GHRH release which coincides with a circadian-dependent period of relative somatostatin disinhibition. Extensive evidence indicates the existence of a consistent relationship between SW sleep and increased GH secretion and, conversely, between awakenings and decreased GH release. There is a linear relationship between amounts of SW sleep--whether measured by visual scoring or by delta activity--and amounts of concomitant GH secretion, although dissociations may occur, most likely because of variable levels of somatostatin inhibition. Pharmacological stimulation of SW sleep results in increased GH release, and compounds which increase SW sleep may therefore represent a novel class of GH secretagogues. During aging, SW sleep and GH secretion decrease with the same chronology, raising the possibility that the peripheral effects of the hyposomatotropism of the elderly may partially reflect age-related alterations in sleep-wake homeostasis. While the association between sleep and GH release has been well documented, there is also evidence indicating that components of the somatotropic axis are involved in regulating sleep. The studies are most consistent in indicating a role for GHRH in promoting NREM and/or SW sleep via central, rather than peripheral, mechanisms. A role for GH in sleep regulation is less well-documented but seems to involve REM, rather than NREM, sleep. It has been proposed that the stimulation of GH release and the promotion of NREM sleep by GHRH are two separate processes which involve GHRH neurons located in two distinct areas of the hypothalamus. Somatostatinergic control of GH release appears to be weaker during sleep than during wake, suggesting that somatostatinergic tone is lower in the hypothalamic area(s) involved in sleep regulation and sleep-related GH release than in the area controlling daytime GH secretion. While the concept of a dual control of daytime and sleep-related GH secretion remains to be directly demonstrated, it allows for the reconciliation of a number of experimental observations.

Adult↗

A model of chromatin-dependent DNA replication sequences based on the decondensation units hypothesis.

A model of chromatin-dependent DNA replication sequences was developed on the previously reported "decondensation units" hypothesis and its kinetic properties were examined by way of calculating various numerical indices using a Monte Carlo procedure. The model has much in common with the previous one but a fundamental difference is that the unit is assumed to consist of linearly arranged H-, D-, A- and S-zones each containing genes of different functional categories which are called H-, D-, A- and S-genes, respectively. The units are decondensed by the action of D-factors, i.e. decondensation factors, from H-zone to the end of S-zone and the genes in decondensed regions release signals to produce housekeeping enzymes, D-factors, A-factors and S-factors. These products are stored and at the same time degraded. A-factors activate replication origins in the decondensed regions and S-factors induce DNA synthesis at the activated origins. Replicated DNA is recondensed and gene activities are shut down in the recondensed chromatin. The factors are produced under the control of chromosome cycle and in turn affect chromosomes. Thus, dual control mechanism operates as Mazia and Prescott have argued. Biochemical and cytogenetic basis of this model was reviewed briefly and some results of simulation presented which include DNA synthesis rate vs. DNA content relationships. An outstanding characteristic of the model is the constancy of cellular state in A-subphase located in the late G1.

Animals↗