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Severe electrolyte disorders following cardiac surgery: a prospective controlled observational study.

INTRODUCTION: Electrolyte disorders are an important cause of ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias as well as various other complications in the intensive care unit. Patients undergoing cardiac surgery are at risk for development of tachyarrhythmias, especially in the period during and immediately after surgical intervention. Preventing electrolyte disorders is thus an important goal of therapy in such patients. However, although levels of potassium are usually measured regularly in these patients, other electrolytes such as magnesium, phosphate and calcium are measured far less frequently. We hypothesized that patients undergoing cardiac surgical procedures might be at risk for electrolyte depletion, and we therefore conducted the present study to assess electrolyte levels in such patients. METHODS: Levels of magnesium, phosphate, potassium, calcium and sodium were measured in 500 consecutive patients undergoing various cardiac surgical procedures who required extracorporeal circulation (group 1). A total of 250 patients admitted to the intensive care unit following other major surgical procedures served as control individuals (group 2). Urine electrolyte excretion was measured in a subgroup of 50 patients in both groups. RESULTS: All cardiac patients received 1 l cardioplegia solution containing 16 mmol potassium and 16 mmol magnesium. In addition, intravenous potassium supplementation was greater in cardiac surgery patients (mean +/- standard error: 10.2 +/- 4.8 mmol/hour in cardiac surgery patients versus 1.3 +/- 1.0 in control individuals; P < 0.01), and most (76% versus 2%; P < 0.01) received one or more doses of magnesium (on average 2.1 g) for clinical reasons, mostly intraoperative arrhythmia. Despite these differences in supplementation, electrolyte levels decreased significantly in cardiac surgery patients, most of whom (88% of cardiac surgery patients versus 20% of control individuals; P < 0.001) met criteria for clinical deficiency in one or more electrolytes. Electrolyte levels were as follows (mmol/l [mean +/- standard error]; cardiac patients versus control individuals): phosphate 0.43 +/- 0.22 versus 0.92 +/- 0.32 (P < 0.001); magnesium 0.62 +/- 0.24 versus 0.95 +/- 0.27 (P < 0.001); calcium 1.96 +/- 0.41 versus 2.12 +/- 0.33 (P < 0.001); and potassium 3.6 +/- 0.70 versus 3.9 +/- 0.63 (P < 0.01). Magnesium levels in patients who had not received supplementation were 0.47 +/- 0.16 mmol/l in group 1 and 0.95 +/- 0.26 mmol/l in group 2 (P < 0.001). Urinary excretion of potassium, magnesium and phosphate was high in group 1 (data not shown), but this alone could not completely account for the observed electrolyte depletion. CONCLUSION: Patients undergoing cardiac surgery with extracorporeal circulation are at high risk for electrolyte depletion, despite supplementation of some electrolytes, such as potassium. The probable mechanism is a combination of increased urinary excretion and intracellular shift induced by a combination of extracorporeal circulation and decreased body temperature during surgery (hypothermia induced diuresis). Our findings may partly explain the high risk of tachyarrhythmia in patients who have undergone cardiac surgery. Prophylactic supplementation of potassium, magnesium and phosphate should be seriously considered in all patients undergoing cardiac surgical procedures, both during surgery and in the immediate postoperative period. Levels of these electrolytes should be monitored frequently in such patients.

Adult↗

First day review after uncomplicated phacoemulsification: is it necessary?

PURPOSE: To determine whether first day follow-up is necessary after routine uncomplicated phacoemulsification cataract surgery. METHODS: Data collected prospectively at day 1 postoperative review. RESULTS: In 510 consecutive cases, serious complications occurred in 8 (1.6%) (wound leak [4], corneal abrasion [2], iris prolapse [1], hyphema [1]). Intraocular pressure (IOP) >30 mmHg was found in 26 (5.1%) and was strongly associated with a diagnosis of pre-existing glaucoma or ocular hypertension (odds ratio [OR] 7.7). Symptoms of headache or ocular discomfort occurred in 40 (7.8%), mostly in association with raised IOP, and were also associated with pre-existing glaucoma or ocular hypertension (OR 4.7). Central corneal edema was found in 61 (12.0%). In the absence of corneal edema, IOP was >30 mmHg in only two cases (0.39%). CONCLUSIONS: Few sight-threatening complications were detected on the morning after an uncomplicated procedure. First day follow-up may be safely omitted if adequate patient counseling is undertaken and there is provision of adequate access to eye services. Review prior to discharge on the day of surgery would provide an opportunity to detect these few surgical complications and for counseling. A diagnosis of glaucoma or ocular hypertension is a risk factor for significantly raised next day IOP and these patients are more likely to experience postoperative discomfort. They may benefit from prophylactic treatment.

Aftercare↗

Prophylactic antibiotics for head and neck surgery with flap reconstruction.

The leading cause of postoperative morbidity in patients undergoing major head and neck surgical procedures is postoperative infection. This prospective randomized multi-institutional clinical trial was designed to compare the effectiveness of clindamycin phosphate and high-dose cefazolin sodium therapy in preventing postoperative wound sepsis in patients undergoing contaminated head and neck surgical procedures in which flap reconstruction was required. Either clindamycin phosphate (900 mg) or cefazolin sodium (2 g) therapy was instituted intravenously prior to surgery and continued every 8 hours, for a total of 24 hours. The patients received postoperative follow-up, and the wounds were graded according to the worst condition observed. One hundred cases were evaluated. Fifty-one patients received clindamycin and 49 patients received high doses of cefazolin; wound infection developed in 10 patients (19.6%) and 11 patients (21.6%), respectively. This difference was not statistically significant. The average duration of surgery was approximately 8 hours for both the infected and the noninfected groups of patients. High-dose cefazolin and clindamycin have similar efficacy when administered prophylactically under these circumstances. Reconstruction with free vascularized tissue may aid in reducing postoperative wound infection.

Cefazolin↗

[Is there a rationale for use of antibiotics in hair transplantation surgery?].

Currently hair transplantation is the number one cosmetic surgical procedure in men. American Academy of Cosmetic Surgery (AACS) estimated that there were 177,000 hair transplantation sessions done in the year 2000. As for other cutaneous surgery, various antibiotics are administered during hair transplantation to minimize complications. But the use of prophylactic antibiotics to avoid surgical side infection for clean surgical wounds remains controversial. Although antibiotic prophylaxis can decrease the incidence of surgical side infection, the benefits should be weighed against the risks of toxic and allergic reactions, dysbacteriosis, and the emergence of bacterial resistance. In any case most of surgeons routinely prescribe the use of antibiotics preoperatively (from 1 hour to 2 days before the procedure) and postoperatively (range 5-7 days) for all patients. The objective of this work was the complete clinical observation for surgical side infection risk assessment during large hair transplant sessions which would help us to answer the question: should the antibiotic prophylaxis be used routinely in hair transplant procedures? Three groups of study subjects were defined: first group--100 patients who were operated in our clinic in 2002-2004 years. Number of transplanted FU per session varied between 350-4516 (average 1983+/-4,8). In this group antibiotics were not be administrated. Second group--100 patients who were operated in the same period with 2016+/-47 FU transplantation. In this group all patients received 1,0 gr. ceftriaxone (rocephin, Roche) before surgery and 1,0 gr. ceftriaxone every day after surgery during 5 days. Third group--342 patients who were operated during 1999-2002 years with transplantation of 420-3000 FU (average 1411+/-3,9) per session. In this group all patients received Duracef 500 mg (Bristol Mayers) twice per day after surgery during 1 week. Our observations demonstrated no accidents of surgical side infection or irritation of recipient side or central necrosis in first two groups. 7 cases of SSI and central necrosis were occurred in the third group, but the primary cause of these complications was due to the rough technique in creation of recipient sites (using N16 Nokor needle) or donor closure. Analysis of our clinical observations which has been continued for 6 years and included 542 cases, assures us that prophylactic prescription of antibiotics after hair transplantation is unnecessary especially during strict adherence to the aseptic rules.

Alopecia↗

Tropisetron in the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting.

STUDY OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the efficacy of tropisetron, a selective 5-HT(3) receptor antagonist, in preventing nausea and vomiting in high-risk inpatients undergoing various surgical procedures. DESIGN: Prospective, open, nonrandomized, observational, interventional study. SETTING: Postanesthesia care unit, and surgical wards of the University Hospital Center, Charleroi. PATIENTS: A total of 1,132 elective surgical inpatients (>15 years of age) in two separate surveys. The first prospective survey covered all surgical adult inpatients (n = 671) after various surgical procedures over a 3-month period. A new 3-month survey was performed to assess the effectiveness of the preventive measure and included another 461 patients. INTERVENTIONS: Risk factors associated with nausea and vomiting were recorded in the first survey and used to establish an antiemetic policy. This consisted in the administration of tropisetron 2 mg intravenously after anesthesia induction, if two patient-related risk factors associated with high-risk surgery and general anesthesia were present. MEASUREMENTS AND MAIN RESULTS: Nausea frequency and intensity, assessed every 4 hours using a visual analog scale (VAS), frequency and times of vomiting episodes and the need for rescue medication were recorded for 72 hours postoperatively. Nausea was experienced by 18.8% and vomiting by 9.8% of the patients in the first survey (211 high risk-patients of 671). In the second survey, 137 patients of 461, considered at high-risk received prophylactic tropisetron. The proportion of patients having nausea decreased to 11.1% (p,178 0.01) and vomiting episodes to 2.8% (p < 0.001). Twenty-six of the tropisetron-treated patients (19%) suffered subsequent postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). Patient satisfaction with tropisetron was high. CONCLUSION: Prophylactic tropisetron can reduce the incidence of PONV in selected high-risk inpatients undergoing various types of surgical procedures.

Adult↗

[Triple pelvic osteotomy (according to Tönnis and Kalchschmidt) in the treatment of acetabular dysplasia--medium-term results].

AIM: The triple pelvic osteotomy according to Tönnis and Kalchschmidt has gained major significance in the surgical treatment of acetabular dysplasia in adolescents and adults. The curative and prophylactic potentials of this operative procedure are reviewed in this study by means of a clinical and radiological follow-up trial. METHODS: 34 patients/38 hip joints treated by the triple pelvic osteotomy between 1996 and 2005 were reviewed clinically and radiologically with an average follow-up of 3.5 years. The radiological classification into grades of deviation was done according to Tschauner et al., clinically the preoperative Harris hip score was determined, as well as common epidemiologic parameters. At follow-up, the preoperatively determined radiological and clinical parameters were controlled and subjected to statistical analysis using Student's t-test for the comparison of means between two paired groups. Finally, the subjective assessment of the operation's result by the patients was registered. RESULTS: A statistically highly significant amelioration of the Harris hip score, relevant radiological angles and grades of deviation could be demonstrated at follow-up. This fact coincided with a high or very high patient satisfaction in 81.7% of the cases. The conversion rate to alloarthroplasty was 2.6%. The complication profile was within the scope of similar elective hip surgeries. CONCLUSION: The triple pelvic osteotomy according to Tönnis and Kalchschmidt has shown in the present study a high and constant potential with regard to reduction/absence of disorders as well as a statistically highly significant amelioration of clinical scores and relevant radiological angles. In our experience, this surgical method can be regarded as the joint-preserving method of choice in the cardinal indication of adolescent and adult acetabular dysplasia.

Acetabulum↗

The influence of intramedullary nailing upon the development of metastases in the treatment of an impending pathological fracture: an experimental study.

An experimental model has been developed in which the effects of a pathological fracture and intramedullary nailing on metastatic spread have been investigated. The endpoint used was the production of lung metastases in rats inoculated intracortically with a rhabdomyosarcoma. We have found that a pathological fracture markedly increases the incidence of lung metastases and that intramedullary nailing, by decreasing the incidence of fractures, decreases the incidence of lung metastases. The surgical procedure itself does not increase the incidence significantly. It is concluded that in metastatic disease prophylactic nailing of an impending pathological fracture is the treatment of choice.

Animals↗

The influence of intramedullary nailing on the development of metastases in the treatment of an impending pathologic fracture: an experimental study.

An experimental model was developed to study the effects of a pathologic fracture and intramedullary nailing on metastatic spread. The end point used was the production of lung metastases in rats inoculated intracortically with a rat rhabdomyosarcoma. We found that a pathologic fracture markedly increases the incidence of lung metastases and that intramedullary nailing, by decreasing the incidence of fractures, decreases this incidence. The surgical procedure itself does not increase the incidence significantly. It is concluded that in metastatic disease prophylactic nailing of an impending pathologic fracture is the treatment of choice.

Animals↗

Minimal complications in a surgical population with severe asthma receiving prophylactic corticosteroids.

Sixty-eight patients with asthma followed by the Northwestern Allergy Service underwent a total of 92 surgical procedures from July 1973 to December 1986. In 41 of 92 procedures outpatient prednisone was administered, and in 92 procedures a pretreatment regimen of 100 mg hydrocortisone parenterally every 8 hours beginning the night before surgery was administered. Postoperatively, the overall incidence of pulmonary complications (either pulmonary infection or asthma) was 9.7%. Three patients developed pneumonia, demonstrated by an infiltrate on chest x-ray examination, and two patients developed wheezing requiring epinephrine, giving a complication rate of 5.4%. In addition, four patients developed mild wheezing postoperatively. Statistical analyses to compare the overall infection rate in this asthmatic population with that in two other surgical populations showed no statistical differences. There were no deaths and no patient developed any wound complication or adrenocortical insufficiency. These results indicate that patients with asthma in optimal respiratory condition who have received preoperative clinical evaluation and a hydrocortisone pretreatment regimen can undergo surgery with minimal complications.

Asthma↗

Evolution of antithrombin III during the postoperative period.

In a prospective study, antithrombin III (AT III) was performed preoperatively, peroperatively immediately after the surgical procedure and daily during the 8 postoperative days in 57 consecutive patients who underwent major abdominal surgery without prophylactic anticoagulant therapy. On d 8, according to the results of a bilateral radiological phlebography, the patients were divided into 2 groups: Group I: presence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT): n = 28 (49%) and Group 2: absence of deep venous thrombosis: n = 29 (52%). The results of the study showed that the preoperative AT III value did not constitute a marker of the postoperative DVT risk. During the postoperative period, AT III level decreased immediately following the intervention and resumed its preoperative value within 8 d. Nevertheless, this evolution was not different in the 2 groups and was not related to the presence of postoperative DVT.

Antithrombin III↗

Prophylactic antibiotics in urology.

The emergence of prosthetic surgery and nonoperative surgical treatment of urolithiasis has seen with it an expanded application of prophylactic antibiotics. The very nature of these procedures with the often increased risk of infectious complications lends itself perfectly to wider but more judicious use of prophylactic antibiotics. Controlled clinical trials that address issues such as dosing, selection, and indications for antibiotic prophylaxis are lacking. Until that information is forthcoming, only recommendations can be made as we have tried to provide in this article.

Anti-Bacterial Agents↗

The left atrial appendage: our most lethal human attachment! Surgical implications.

OBJECTIVES: To prevent death from atrial fibrillation, a cardiac disease which kills by producing emboli. Atrial fibrillation causes about 25% of strokes and increases stroke rate by five times. Over 90% of these embolic strokes are from clots originating in the left atrial appendage. This study addresses the surgical feasibility of removing the appendage to prevent future deaths in two subcategories of patients. (1) Prophylactic removal during open-heart surgery to study its safety. Theoretically, as these patients age and some develop atrial fibrillation, protection from embolic strokes would already be present. (2) Therapeutic removal in chronic atrial fibrillation patients by means of a thorascopic approach. Its technical feasibility is demonstrated. Its actual stroke prevention potential awaits large studies. METHODS: Appendectomy has been evaluated three ways. (1) Experimentally, thorascopic appendage removal was performed on 20 goats with endoscopic approach. Late studies showed a cleanly healed atrial closure after stapling, and no puckering of tissue as seen with the purse-string approach. (2) Safety of human appendectomy was demonstrated in 437 patients (1995-1997). Routine appendectomy was performed during open-heart surgery. Forty-three appendages were stapled, 391 sutured off. (3) Thorascopic appendectomy in seven patients with chronic atrial fibrillation has been successfully accomplished as an isolated surgical procedure. Stapling or suture closure provides a much cleaner, non-puckered suture line than a purse string. RESULTS: In prophylactic removal, no acute bleeding occurred. No late problems have been identified. Endoscopic removal of the appendage has been successful in seven atrial fibrillation patients. CONCLUSIONS: The left atrial appendage is a lethal source of emboli in atrial fibrillation patients. As patients age and often develop atrial fibrillation, prophylactic appendage removal whenever the chest is open is suggested as a method to prevent future strokes. In chronic atrial fibrillation patients, appendectomy can be done with a mini-thorascopic approach. Further studies are planned to demonstrate the effectiveness of appendectomy in preventing strokes in the chronic fibrillating patients.

Animals↗

Interventions for treating asymptomatic impacted wisdom teeth in adolescents and adults.

BACKGROUND: The prophylactic removal of asymptomatic impacted wisdom teeth is defined as the (surgical) removal of wisdom teeth in the absence of local disease. Impacted wisdom teeth have been associated with pathological changes, such as inflammation of the gums around the tooth, root resorption, gums- and alveolar bone disease, damage of the adjacent teeth, the development of cysts and tumours. Several other reasons to justify prophylactic removal have also been given. Wisdom teeth do not always fulfil a functional role in the mouth. When surgical removal is carried out in older patients the risk of more postoperative complications, pain and discomfort increases. Nevertheless, in most developed countries the prophylactic removal of trouble-free wisdom teeth, either impacted or fully erupted, has long been considered as 'appropriate care'. Prudent decision-making, with adherence to specified indicators for removal, may reduce the number of surgical procedures by 60% or more. It has been suggested that watchful monitoring of asymptomatic wisdom teeth may be an appropriate strategy. OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the effect of prophylactic removal of asymptomatic impacted wisdom teeth in adolescents and adults compared with the retention of these wisdom teeth. SEARCH STRATEGY: The following electronic databases were searched:The Cochrane Oral Health Group Trials Register (4 August 2004), the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL), MEDLINE (1966 to 4 August 2004), PubMed (1966 to 4 August 2004), EMBASE (1974 to 4 August 2004). There was no restriction on language. Key journals were handsearched. An attempt was made to identify ongoing and unpublished trials. SELECTION CRITERIA: All randomised or controlled clinical trials (RCTs/CCTs) comparing the effect of prophylactic removal of asymptomatic impacted wisdom teeth with no-treatment (retention). DATA COLLECTION AND ANALYSIS: Assessment of relevance, validity and data extraction were conducted in duplicate and independently by three reviewers. Where uncertainty existed, authors were contacted for additional information about randomisation and withdrawals. A quality assessment of the trials was carried out. MAIN RESULTS: Only three trials were identified that satisfied the review selection criteria. Two were completed RCTs and both assessed the influence of prophylactic removal on late incisor crowding in adolescents. One ongoing RCT was identified, but the researchers were unable to provide any data. They intend to publish in the near future and information received will be included in updates. Although both completed trials met the inclusion criteria of the review, regarding participants characteristics, interventions and outcomes assessed, different outcomes measures were assessed which prevented pooling of data. AUTHORS' CONCLUSIONS: No evidence was found to support or refute routine prophylactic removal of asymptomatic impacted wisdom teeth in adults. There is some reliable evidence that suggests that the prophylactic removal of asymptomatic impacted wisdom teeth in adolescents neither reduces nor prevents late incisor crowding.

Adolescent↗

Quality standard for antimicrobial prophylaxis in surgical procedures. Infectious Diseases Society of America.

OBJECTIVE: The objectives of this quality standard are (1) to provide an implementation mechanism that will facilitate the reliable administration of prophylactic antimicrobial agents to patients undergoing operative procedures in which such a practice is judged to be beneficial and (2) to provide a guideline that will help local hospital committees formulate policies and set up mechanisms for their implementation. Although standards in the medical literature spell out recommendations for specific procedures, agents, schedules, and doses, other reports document that these standards frequently are not followed in practice. OPTIONS: We have specified the procedures in which the administration of prophylactic antimicrobial agents has been shown to be beneficial, those in which this practice is widely thought to be beneficial but in which compelling evidence is lacking, and those in which this practice is controversial. We have examined the evidence regarding the optimal timing of drug administration, the optimal dose, and the optimal duration of prophylaxis. OUTCOMES: The intended outcome is more uniform and reliable administration of prophylactic antibiotics in those circumstances where their value has been demonstrated or their use has been judged by the local practicing medical community to be desirable. The result should be a reduction in rates of postoperative wound infection in conjunction with a limitation on the quantities of antimicrobial agents used in circumstances where they are not likely to help. EVIDENCE: Many prospective, randomized, controlled trials comparing placebo with antibiotic and comparing one antibiotic with another have been conducted. In addition, some trials have compared the efficacy of different doses or methods of administration. Other papers have reported on the apparent efficacy of administration at different times and on actual practice in specific communities. Only a small group of relevant articles found through 1993 are cited herein. When authoritative reviews are available, these--rather than an exhaustive list of original references--are cited. VALUES: We assumed that reducing rates of postoperative infection was valuable but that reducing the total amount of antimicrobial agents employed was also worthwhile. The cost of and morbidity attributable to postoperative wound infections should be weighted against the cost and potential morbidity associated with excessive use of antimicrobial agents. BENEFITS, HARMS, AND COSTS: More reliable administration of antimicrobial agents according to recognized guidelines should prevent some postoperative wound infections while lowering the total quantity of these drugs used. No harms are anticipated. The costs involved are those of the efforts needed on a local basis to design and implement the mechanism that supports uniform and reliable administration of prophylactic antibiotics. RECOMMENDATIONS: All patients for whom prophylactic antimicrobial agents are recommended should receive them. The agents given should be appropriate in light of published guidelines. A short duration of prophylaxis (usually < 24 hours) is recommended. VALIDATION: More than 50 experts in infectious diseases and 10 experts in surgical infectious diseases and surgical subspecialties reviewed the standard. In addition, the methods for its implementation were reviewed by the American Society of Hospital Pharmacists. SPONSORS: The Quality Standards Subcommittee of the Clinical Affairs Committee of the Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) developed the standard. The subcommittee was composed of representatives of the IDSA (P.A.G. and J.E.M.), the Society for Hospital Epidemiology of America (R.P.W.), the Surgical Infection Society (E.P.D.), the Pediatric Infectious Diseases Society (P.J.K.), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (W.J.M.), the Obstetrics and Gynecology Infectious Diseases Society (R.L.S.), and the Association of Practitioners of Infection Control (T.

Anti-Bacterial Agents↗

Breast cancer and ovarian cancer genetics.

Breast and ovarian cancers are the second and fifth leading causes of cancer death, respectively, among women in the United States. Individuals with breast cancer have a 20--30% chance of having at least one relative with the disease. However, only 5--10% of the cases are a direct result of germline mutations in highly penetrable genes, such as BRCA1 and BRCA2 (BRCA1/2) as well as genes TP53 and PTEN. Since 1996, genetic testing for these mutations has been clinically available. A strategy for the management of women at increased familial risk of breast and ovarian cancers is described, which includes genetic assessment, chemoprevention, radiologic screening, and clinical and self-examination. Genetic testing should occur within a cancer genetic clinic after genetic counseling. A blood sample allows determination of the presence of the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, the TP53 gene, the PTEN gene, and the ATM gene. Tumor examination has identified a growth factor receptor gene, human epidermal growth factor receptor (HER-2). With regard to diet and lifestyle, women at increased risk of breast cancer could be advised to reduce dietary fat, avoid obesity, decrease alcohol consumption, and take regular exercise. Although chemoprotection is a valuable consideration, it is important to emphasize that the use of Tamoxifen in BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation carriers is not established, nor is the optimum duration of benefit. An overview of the main outcomes of the current published studies confirms a 38% decrease in breast cancer incidence with Tamoxifen but recommends its use be restricted to women at high risk of breast cancer and low risk for potential side effects. The role of bilateral risk-reducing mastectomy or prophylactic mastectomy has been controversial for several reasons, including the psychosocial significance of the breast in Western cultures, the wide acceptance of breast conservation in surgery for early breast cancer, and the previous lack of data on its efficacy. The surgical procedure should aim to remove substantially all at-risk breast tissue. However, there is a balance between reduction of cancer risk and cosmetic outcome. Bilateral prophylactic oophorectomy can significantly decrease ovarian cancer risk in women who carry BCRA1 mutations. Oophorectomy lowers the risk of breast cancer, even in women who have previously used hormone replacement therapy. There are no published randomized controlled trials examining the effectiveness of mammographic screening in women under 50 years of age with a family history of breast cancer. However, the published studies do suggest that mammographic screening of a high-risk group of women under 50 years of age may detect cancer at a rate equivalent to that seen in women 10 years older with normal risk. Other initial studies also support MRI as having a greater sensitivity than mammography in high-risk women. Breast clinical and self-examination is often advocated, but its effectiveness is unproved, and only one randomized study has been undertaken in women at risk. On the basis of this study as well as one nonrandomized study, it can be concluded that clinical examination as well as mammography are essential in detecting breast cancer. under 50 years of age with a family history of breast cancer. However, the published studies do suggest that mammographic screening of a high-risk group of women under 50 years of age may detect cancer at a rate equivalent to that seen in women 10 years older with normal risk. Other initial studies also support MRI as having a greater sensitivity than mammography in high-risk women. Breast clinical and self-examination is often advocated, but its effectiveness is unproved, and only one randomized study has been undertaken in women at risk. On the basis of this study as well as one nonrandomized study, it can be concluded that clinical examination as well as mammography are essential in detecting breast cancer.

Breast Neoplasms↗